Menu

Question 4621

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy presents with a painful, enlarging mass around his distal thigh. Radiographs reveal a metaphyseal permeative lesion with a sunburst periosteal reaction and Codman's triangle. A biopsy reveals malignant, high-grade spindle cells producing osteoid matrix. What is the most appropriate definitive management protocol?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection and adjuvant chemotherapy
. Primary transfemoral amputation
. Definitive radiation therapy followed by wide surgical resection
. Wide surgical resection alone
. Systemic chemotherapy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection and adjuvant chemotherapy


Explanation

The clinical presentation and biopsy confirm the diagnosis of conventional high-grade osteosarcoma. The standard of care for conventional appendicular osteosarcoma is neoadjuvant (preoperative) chemotherapy, followed by definitive local control (usually limb-sparing wide surgical resection), and culminating with adjuvant (postoperative) chemotherapy.

Question 4622

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old female with a history of multiple myeloma presents with severe, functionally limiting thigh pain. Radiographs reveal a lytic lesion in the peritrochanteric region of her proximal femur. The lesion occupies greater than 2/3 of the cortical diameter. According to the Mirels' criteria, what is her score and the recommended orthopedic management?

. Score 8; localized external beam radiation therapy
. Score 10; restricted weight-bearing observation
. Score 12; prophylactic internal fixation
. Score 7; bisphosphonate therapy and observation
. Score 9; long-leg cast immobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 8; localized external beam radiation therapy


Explanation

The Mirels criteria assess the risk of pathologic fracture. The components are Site (Peritrochanteric = 3), Nature of lesion (Lytic = 3), Size (>2/3 of cortex = 3), and Pain (Functional/Severe = 3). The total score is 12. A score of 9 or greater is highly predictive of an impending pathologic fracture, making prophylactic internal fixation the standard recommendation.

Question 4623

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 19-year-old male presents with chronic right thigh pain that is noticeably worse at night and dramatically relieved by NSAIDs. Radiographs show a small radiolucent nidus surrounded by intense, dense reactive sclerosis in the diaphyseal region. What is the most common anatomic location for this specific benign bone tumor overall?

. Proximal femur
. Tibial diaphysis
. Proximal humerus
. Posterior elements of the spine
. Distal femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal femur


Explanation

The clinical presentation is pathognomonic for an osteoid osteoma. While they can occur in almost any bone, the most common location overall is the proximal femur, followed closely by the tibia.

Question 4624

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old male presents with worsening sacral pain and bowel dysfunction. Radiographs reveal a large, destructive midline radiolucent lesion in the sacrum. Histological examination of a biopsy specimen shows lobules of physaliferous cells with vacuolated cytoplasm embedded in a myxoid stroma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Chondrosarcoma
. Giant cell tumor
. Chordoma
. Plasmacytoma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondrosarcoma


Explanation

Chordomas are malignant bone tumors originating from notochordal remnants, most commonly found in the sacrococcygeal region or clivus. The hallmark histological finding is the presence of physaliferous (bubbly, vacuolated) cells.

Question 4625

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with progressive knee pain. Radiographs show a purely lytic lesion in the proximal tibia epiphysis that crosses the physis. Histology demonstrates mononuclear cells with longitudinal nuclear grooves and pericellular 'chicken-wire' calcifications. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma
. Chondroblastoma
. Giant cell tumor
. Aneurysmal bone cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

Chondroblastoma classically presents as an epiphyseal lytic lesion in skeletally immature patients. The characteristic histologic finding is mononuclear chondroblasts with 'coffee bean' nuclei and 'chicken-wire' calcifications.

Question 4626

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old female with a history of breast cancer presents with a painful lytic lesion in the diaphysis of her femur. According to the Mirels' criteria, which of the following aggregate scores is generally considered the threshold to recommend prophylactic internal fixation?

. > 5
. > 6
. > 8
. > 10
. > 12

Correct Answer & Explanation

. > 5


Explanation

The Mirels' scoring system evaluates the risk of pathologic fracture based on site, pain, lesion size, and nature (lytic/blastic). A score of 9 or greater (>8) indicates a high risk of fracture and is an indication for prophylactic internal fixation.

Question 4627

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old female undergoes neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection for high-grade conventional osteosarcoma of the proximal tibia. Which of the following parameters obtained from the resected specimen is the most important independent prognostic factor for long-term survival?
. Initial primary tumor volume
. Specific histologic subtype (e.g., chondroblastic vs. osteoblastic)
. Percentage of tumor necrosis
. Degree of metaphyseal cortical breakthrough
. Proximity of the tumor to the physis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Percentage of tumor necrosis


Explanation

The degree of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy (evaluated histologically on the resected specimen) is the single most important prognostic indicator for long-term survival in conventional high-grade osteosarcoma. Greater than 90% necrosis (Huvos grade III or IV) indicates a favorable response and improved prognosis.

Question 4628

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with a diaphyseal femur lesion showing an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals sheets of small round blue cells. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most characteristic of this lesion?

. t(11;22)
. t(9;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

The presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. The most common chromosomal translocation associated with Ewing sarcoma is t(11;22), which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma, t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma, and t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 4629

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
In a patient diagnosed with conventional high-grade osteosarcoma, which of the following is established as the most significant prognostic factor for long-term survival?
. Anatomic location of the primary tumor
. Initial tumor volume prior to biopsy
. Histologic subtype (e.g., osteoblastic vs. chondroblastic)
. Percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy
. Patient age at the time of diagnosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy


Explanation

The degree of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the single most important prognostic indicator for conventional high-grade osteosarcoma. A response of 90% or greater necrosis (Huvos grade III or IV) correlates strongly with improved disease-free and overall survival.

Question 4630

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with a diaphyseal femur lesion. Biopsy demonstrates a sheet of uniform small round blue cells. Cytogenetic analysis reveals a t(11;22)(q24;q12) chromosomal translocation. Which resulting fusion gene is highly specific for this diagnosis?

. SYT-SSX
. EWS-FLI1
. TLS-CHOP
. PAX3-FKHR
. COL1A1-PDGFB

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SYT-SSX


Explanation

The diagnosis is Ewing sarcoma, which is characterized by the t(11;22) translocation in ~85% of cases, leading to the EWS-FLI1 fusion transcript. SYT-SSX is found in Synovial Sarcoma; TLS-CHOP in Myxoid Liposarcoma; PAX3-FKHR in Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 4631

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old patient with an osteosarcoma of the distal femur completes an initial 10-week course of neoadjuvant chemotherapy, followed by wide surgical resection. Pathological analysis of the resected specimen is performed. Which histological parameter is the most robust prognostic indicator for long-term overall survival?

. Mitotic rate per high-power field
. Presence of microscopic lymphatic invasion
. Percentage of tumor necrosis
. Chondroblastic versus osteoblastic differentiation
. Degree of nuclear pleomorphism

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mitotic rate per high-power field


Explanation

The degree of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the single most important prognostic factor for overall survival in conventional high-grade osteosarcoma. A histological response of greater than or equal to 90% necrosis indicates a "good responder" and is correlated with significantly improved survival outcomes.

Question 4632

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 10-year-old boy presents with multiple cafe-au-lait spots, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, and precocious puberty. What is the underlying genetic mutation associated with this syndrome?

. GNAS1 gene activating mutation
. NF1 gene deletion
. FGFR3 gene point mutation
. EXT1 gene mutation
. COL1A1 gene mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS1 gene activating mutation


Explanation

The classic triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait spots, and precocious puberty describes McCune-Albright syndrome. It is caused by an activating post-zygotic somatic mutation in the GNAS1 gene.

Question 4633

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following bone tumors is characterized histologically by irregular spicules of woven bone lacking prominent osteoblastic rimming, set in a fibrous stroma?

. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Fibrous dysplasia
. Ewing sarcoma
. Chondromyxoid fibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoid osteoma


Explanation

Fibrous dysplasia is classically described as irregular spicules of woven bone resembling 'Chinese characters' arising directly from a fibrous stroma without osteoblastic rimming. The woven bone often appears slightly basophilic or 'blue'.

Question 4634

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

In the Enneking staging system for benign musculoskeletal tumors, what defines a Stage 3 (aggressive) lesion?

. Latent lesion with a thick sclerotic rim
. Active lesion expanding but contained within the true capsule
. Lesion that has breached the tumor capsule and reactive zone into adjacent tissues
. Lesion with regional lymph node metastasis
. Lesion with distant pulmonary metastasis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latent lesion with a thick sclerotic rim


Explanation

In the Enneking system for benign tumors, Stage 3 refers to aggressive lesions that break through their capsule and reactive zone into adjacent surrounding tissues. Stage 1 is latent, and Stage 2 is active but contained.

Question 4635

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Malignant infantile osteopetrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by non-functioning osteoclasts and a lack of medullary canal formation. The most common genetic mutation responsible for this severe phenotype involves a gene encoding for which of the following?

. Carbonic anhydrase II
. Chloride channel 7 (CLCN7)
. TCIRG1 (vacuolar proton pump)
. Cathepsin K
. Type I collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Carbonic anhydrase II


Explanation

Mutations in TCIRG1 (which encodes the a3 subunit of the vacuolar H+-ATPase proton pump) account for >50% of cases of autosomal recessive malignant infantile osteopetrosis. Carbonic anhydrase II mutations cause osteopetrosis with renal tubular acidosis. CLCN7 mutations commonly cause autosomal dominant adult osteopetrosis (Albers-Schonberg disease).

Question 4636

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with a diaphyseal femur lesion exhibiting an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A core biopsy confirms a small round blue cell tumor. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most characteristic of this malignancy?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(9;22)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

Ewing's sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22) chromosomal translocation in over 90% of cases, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. Synovial sarcoma is associated with t(X;18), myxoid liposarcoma with t(12;16), and alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma with t(2;13).

Question 4637

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old male presents with a slowly enlarging mass near his knee. Biopsy confirms synovial sarcoma. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is diagnostic for this tumor?

. t(11;22)
. t(9;22)
. t(12;16)
. t(X;18)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is uniquely characterized by the t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. Ewing sarcoma features t(11;22), and myxoid liposarcoma features t(12;16).

Question 4638

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with a diaphyseal lesion of the femur. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells. The genetic anomaly most commonly associated with this tumor results in the formation of which fusion protein?

. EWS-FLI1
. SYT-SSX
. PAX3-FOXO1
. MYC amplification
. TP53 deletion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EWS-FLI1


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is classically characterized by the t(11;22) chromosomal translocation. This specific translocation fuses the EWS gene on chromosome 22 to the FLI1 gene on chromosome 11, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein.

Question 4639

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old male presents with a slow-growing soft tissue mass deep in the popliteal fossa. Biopsy reveals a biphasic pattern consisting of spindle cells and epithelial cells. Cytogenetic analysis is most likely to reveal which of the following translocations?

. t(11;22) (q24;q12)
. t(X;18) (p11;q11)
. t(12;16) (q13;p11)
. t(2;13) (q35;q14)
. t(9;22) (q22;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22) (q24;q12)


Explanation

The clinical presentation (young adult, lower extremity mass) and biphasic histology (spindle and epithelial cells) are classic for synovial sarcoma. The pathognomonic chromosomal translocation for synovial sarcoma is t(X;18)(p11;q11), leading to the SYT-SSX fusion gene. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma, t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma, and t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 4640

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with a permeative, lytic lesion in the metadiaphysis of the proximal tibia associated with an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. If this lesion is confirmed as Ewing sarcoma, which cytogenetic abnormality is most likely present?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(9;22)(q34;q11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is classically characterized by the t(11;22) chromosomal translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. Synovial sarcoma is associated with t(X;18), and myxoid liposarcoma with t(12;16).