Question 4621
Topic: 10. Pathology and OncologyA 12-year-old boy presents with a painful, enlarging mass around his distal thigh. Radiographs reveal a metaphyseal permeative lesion with a sunburst periosteal reaction and Codman's triangle. A biopsy reveals malignant, high-grade spindle cells producing osteoid matrix. What is the most appropriate definitive management protocol?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection and adjuvant chemotherapy