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Question 4581

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male presents with a dull ache in his lower leg. Radiographs show a well-circumscribed, multilobular, osteolytic lesion in the anterior diaphysis of the tibia. Biopsy reveals a biphasic pattern consisting of nests of basaloid cells surrounded by a bland fibrous stroma. Which of the following markers will the epithelial-like cells express?

. Smooth Muscle Actin (SMA)
. Desmin
. Cytokeratin
. S100
. CD34

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Smooth Muscle Actin (SMA)


Explanation

Adamantinoma is a rare, low-grade malignant bone tumor that predominantly occurs in the tibial diaphysis. It has a biphasic histology characterized by epithelial nests that are strongly positive for cytokeratin, distinguishing it from purely mesenchymal tumors.

Question 4582

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old female presents with a painless mass in her abdominal wall. Excision is performed, and pathology shows a proliferation of uniform spindle cells in a collagenous stroma with deep infiltration into adjacent skeletal muscle. Immunohistochemistry shows nuclear beta-catenin accumulation. Patients with multiple such tumors should be screened for which of the following syndromes?

. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
. Neurofibromatosis type 1
. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
. McCune-Albright syndrome
. Maffucci syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Li-Fraumeni syndrome


Explanation

Desmoid tumors (aggressive fibromatosis) feature mutations in the Wnt/beta-catenin pathway, leading to nuclear beta-catenin accumulation. When multiple desmoid tumors are present, it is highly suggestive of Gardner syndrome, a variant of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) caused by APC gene mutations.

Question 4583

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 18-year-old male presents with severe, progressive thigh pain that awakens him at night but is dramatically relieved by ibuprofen.

Imaging reveals a thick area of cortical sclerosis containing a 7-millimeter central radiolucent nidus. The intense pain experienced by this patient is primarily mediated by excessive local production of which substance?

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand (RANKL)
. Fibroblast Growth Factor 23 (FGF23)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)


Explanation

Osteoid osteoma is a benign bone-forming tumor characterized by a small nidus (<1.5 cm) surrounded by dense sclerotic bone. The nidus secretes high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), explaining both the severe nocturnal pain and the dramatic response to NSAIDs.

Question 4584

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

An 8-year-old boy presents with back pain. Radiographs demonstrate vertebra plana of T8. Biopsy reveals a proliferation of mononuclear cells with indented, "coffee-bean" shaped nuclei mixed with eosinophils. Electron microscopy identifies tennis-racket shaped Birbeck granules. Which genetic mutation is most frequently identified in this disease?

. GNAS
. H3F3A
. BRAF V600E
. IDH1
. TP53

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH), formerly known as eosinophilic granuloma when localized to bone, features cells with "coffee-bean" nuclei and Birbeck granules. Over 50% of LCH cases are driven by the activating BRAF V600E mutation.

Question 4585

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old male presents with hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, and low back pain. Radiographs of the skull reveal multiple "punched-out" lytic lesions. Bone marrow biopsy demonstrates sheets of cells with an eccentric nucleus, clumped "clock-face" chromatin, and a perinuclear halo. These neoplastic cells will strongly express which of the following surface markers?

. CD20
. CD3
. CD34
. CD138
. CD99

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD20


Explanation

The clinical presentation and histology are classic for multiple myeloma. The neoplastic plasma cells in multiple myeloma universally express CD138 (syndecan-1), which is used as a highly specific diagnostic marker.

Question 4586

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old male presents with deep groin pain. Radiographs of the proximal femur show a poorly marginated radiolucent lesion with stippled "rings and arcs" calcifications and endosteal scalloping. Biopsy demonstrates malignant cartilage permeating between preexisting host bone trabeculae. Which of the following gene mutations is most commonly implicated in this primary bone tumor?

. EXT1
. H3F3A
. GNAS
. USP6
. IDH1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EXT1


Explanation

Conventional central chondrosarcoma frequently demonstrates characteristic "rings and arcs" calcification and histologic permeation of host bone. Mutations in the isocitrate dehydrogenase genes (IDH1 or IDH2) are found in >50% of central chondrosarcomas.

Question 4587

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old girl presents with a rapidly enlarging mass deep in her calf. Biopsy reveals a proliferation of small round blue cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm, separated by fibrous septa into spaces resembling pulmonary alveoli. Which translocation is diagnostic and confers an unfavorable prognosis in this sarcoma?

. t(11;22)
. t(12;16)
. t(X;18)
. t(2;13)
. t(9;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma is an aggressive pediatric soft tissue sarcoma characterized by small round blue cells with alveolar architecture. It is defined by the t(2;13) translocation, generating the PAX3-FOXO1 fusion protein, which drives aggressive tumor growth.

Question 4588

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male undergoes wide local excision of a slow-growing, multi-nodular mass on his trunk. Histology reveals bland spindle cells arranged in a "storiform" or cartwheel pattern, deeply infiltrating the subcutaneous fat in a "honeycomb" pattern. The tumor cells are strongly positive for CD34. Which cytogenetic abnormality is characteristic of this lesion?

. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(12;22)
. t(2;13)
. t(17;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP) is a locally aggressive cutaneous tumor with storiform histology and prominent CD34 positivity. It is driven by the t(17;22) translocation, resulting in the COL1A1-PDGFB fusion gene, which causes autocrine overstimulation of the PDGF receptor.

Question 4589

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 24-year-old male presents with a deep, slow-growing soft tissue mass in his popliteal fossa. Core needle biopsy demonstrates a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and spindle cell components. Molecular analysis of this tissue is most likely to reveal which of the following characteristic chromosomal translocations?

. t(11;22) (EWS-FLI1)
. t(X;18) (SYT-SSX)
. t(12;16) (FUS-CHOP)
. t(2;13) (PAX3-FOXO1)
. t(9;22) (EWS-CHN)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22) (EWS-FLI1)


Explanation

The clinical and histological picture describes a synovial sarcoma. Synovial sarcomas are characterized by the t(X;18) translocation, which results in the fusion of the SYT gene on chromosome 18 with one of the SSX genes on the X chromosome. The t(11;22) translocation is characteristic of Ewing sarcoma. The t(12;16) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma, and t(2;13) is seen in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 4590

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following features most reliably distinguishes an osteoblastoma from an osteoid osteoma on advanced imaging and histologic review?

. Presence of a radiolucent nidus
. Clinical response to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
. Lesion size greater than 2 centimeters
. Location predominantly in the appendicular skeleton
. Histological presence of woven bone lined by robust osteoblasts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a radiolucent nidus


Explanation

Osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma are both benign bone-forming tumors that share very similar, often indistinguishable, histological features (woven bone trabeculae lined by osteoblasts in a vascular stroma). The primary distinguishing feature is size. An osteoid osteoma has a nidus < 2 cm in diameter. A lesion > 2 cm is classified as an osteoblastoma. Osteoblastomas also typically do not have the classic dramatic response to NSAIDs seen in osteoid osteomas, and they tend to grow progressively.

Question 4591

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with a painful, swollen thigh. Radiographs reveal a permeative diaphyseal lesion with an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. Core needle biopsy shows sheets of small round blue cells. Which of the following genetic translocations is most characteristic of this patient's underlying diagnosis?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(9;22)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. The t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which creates the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein, is present in approximately 85% of Ewing sarcoma cases. t(X;18) is associated with synovial sarcoma; t(12;16) with myxoid liposarcoma; t(9;22) with extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma (and CML); and t(2;13) with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 4592

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old girl is diagnosed with conventional, high-grade osteosarcoma of the distal femur. She completes a course of neoadjuvant chemotherapy and subsequently undergoes wide surgical resection. Pathological analysis of the resected specimen evaluates the percentage of tumor necrosis. According to the Rosen/Huvos grading system, what percentage of tumor necrosis is the established threshold to classify her as having a 'good response' to chemotherapy?

. 50%
. 75%
. 90%
. 95%
. 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 50%


Explanation

In the histological grading of osteosarcoma's response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy (the Rosen or Huvos grading system), a 'good response' is defined by >= 90% tumor necrosis (Grade 3 is 90-99% necrosis, Grade 4 is 100% necrosis). Patients achieving >= 90% necrosis have a significantly better long-term survival prognosis compared to 'poor responders' (< 90% necrosis).

Question 4593

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following chromosomal translocations is diagnostic for Synovial Sarcoma?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q34;q11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which leads to the SYT-SSX fusion gene. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing Sarcoma; t(12;16) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma; t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; and t(9;22) in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma (as well as CML).

Question 4594

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old female presents with a slow-growing, painful mass in her right foot. MRI reveals a deep soft tissue mass that is lobulated and shows inhomogeneous enhancement. Core biopsy demonstrates a biphasic tumor with spindle cells and epithelial components. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most characteristic of this diagnosis?

. t(11;22)
. t(12;16)
. t(X;18)
. t(2;13)
. t(9;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

The clinical and histologic description (biphasic tumor in the foot of a young adult) is classic for Synovial Sarcoma. The hallmark cytogenetic abnormality for synovial sarcoma is the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which results in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma; t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma; t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; and t(9;22) in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma.

Question 4595

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 22-year-old female presents with a slowly enlarging, painless mass at the posterior aspect of the distal femur. Radiographs reveal a heavily ossified, dense mass arising from the surface of the bone with a radiolucent 'string sign' separating the mass from the underlying cortex. Biopsy confirms a low-grade malignant bone-forming tumor. Genetic analysis of this tumor is most likely to show amplification of which of the following genes?

. EWSR1
. SYT-SSX
. MDM2
. IDH1
. GNAS

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EWSR1


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for a parosteal osteosarcoma (posterior distal femur, dense ossification, low-grade, 'string sign' separating the tumor from the host cortex). Parosteal osteosarcoma and low-grade central osteosarcoma are characterized by supernumerary ring chromosomes leading to the amplification of MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12q13-15.

Question 4596

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 15-year-old patient with multiple enchondromatosis presents with extensive cartilaginous lesions primarily localized to one side of the body, sparing the soft tissues. Recent literature has identified that the pathogenesis of this syndrome (Ollier disease) is most closely linked to a somatic mosaic mutation in which of the following genes?

. EXT1
. IDH1 or IDH2
. GNAS
. PTPN11
. FGFR3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EXT1


Explanation

Ollier disease (multiple enchondromatosis) and Maffucci syndrome (multiple enchondromatosis with soft tissue hemangiomas) are both non-hereditary somatic mosaic disorders. They have been shown to be heavily driven by mutations in the isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 or 2 (IDH1 or IDH2) genes. EXT1 is associated with Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (osteochondromas). GNAS is associated with Fibrous Dysplasia (McCune-Albright). FGFR3 is associated with achondroplasia.

Question 4597

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old female with a history of metastatic breast carcinoma presents with intractable mechanical mid-thoracic back pain.

Imaging demonstrates a large lytic lesion involving the T8 vertebral body and bilateral pedicles. There is no epidural tumor extension, and she is neurologically intact. Her Spinal Instability Neoplastic Score (SINS) is calculated to be 11. According to the NOMS framework, what is the next best step in management?

. Emergent anterior corpectomy and decompression
. Radiation therapy alone
. Systemic chemotherapy alone
. Surgical stabilization followed by radiation therapy
. Percutaneous biopsy and observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Emergent anterior corpectomy and decompression


Explanation

The NOMS framework (Neurologic, Oncologic, Mechanical, Systemic) guides the treatment of spinal metastases. Mechanical instability is an independent indication for surgical stabilization, regardless of the tumor's radiosensitivity. A SINS score of 7 to 12 indicates indeterminate or potential instability, and 13 to 18 indicates instability. Because she has intractable mechanical pain and a score of 11, surgical stabilization followed by appropriate oncologic treatment (radiation) is indicated.

Question 4598

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old male presents with slowly progressive bowel and bladder dysfunction. MRI reveals a large, lobulated presacral mass. CT-guided core needle biopsy shows large cells with abundant, vacuolated cytoplasm (physaliferous cells) in a myxoid background. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by marginal excision
. Wide en bloc excision with negative margins
. Definitive radiation therapy without surgery
. Pre-operative embolization followed by piecemeal intralesional resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting


Explanation

The clinical and histologic description (physaliferous cells) is pathognomonic for a sacral chordoma. Chordomas are slow-growing, locally aggressive malignant tumors that are largely resistant to conventional chemotherapy and radiation. The standard of care is wide en bloc excision with negative margins to minimize the risk of local recurrence.

Question 4599

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old male with a history of renal cell carcinoma presents with progressive lower extremity weakness and a solitary, highly destructive lytic lesion at T8 causing spinal cord compression. He is planned for an urgent anterior corpectomy and stabilization. Which of the following preoperative interventions is highly recommended to reduce perioperative morbidity?

. Radiation therapy to the T8 vertebral body
. Preoperative transarterial embolization of the tumor
. Administration of bisphosphonates
. Systemic chemotherapy 24 hours prior to surgery
. Prophylactic inferior vena cava filter placement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiation therapy to the T8 vertebral body


Explanation

Renal cell carcinoma and thyroid carcinoma metastases to the spine are classically hypervascular. Preoperative transarterial embolization of the feeding vessels is highly recommended to significantly reduce intraoperative blood loss and perioperative morbidity. Radiation is typically reserved for radiosensitive tumors or postoperative adjuvant therapy.

Question 4600

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old female complains of burning and tingling in the plantar aspect of her foot, which worsens after standing. Examination reveals a positive Tinel's sign posterior to the medial malleolus. If an MRI is ordered and identifies a space-occupying lesion compressing the posterior tibial nerve, what is the most common etiology in this specific location?

. Lipoma
. Ganglion cyst
. Varicosities
. Schwannoma
. Osteochondroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lipoma


Explanation

Tarsal tunnel syndrome is a compression neuropathy of the tibial nerve. When a specific space-occupying lesion is identified as the cause, venous varicosities are the most common finding, followed by ganglion cysts and lipomas.