This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4141
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following types of osteosarcoma is associated with the best prognosis & long survival?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parosteal
Explanation
Question 4142
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A patient undergoes anterior spinal decompression through a left retroperitoneal approach as treatment of an L2 burst fracture. Following surgery, examination reveals the temperature of the right foot is cool when compared with the left foot. Which of the following neurologic structures has most likely been disrupted?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cauda equina
Explanation
Question 4143
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old patient who has homocystinuria and is Risser 3 is referred for surgical treatment of scoliosis. In addition to the usual risks associated with posterior spinal fusion, the family should be advised that the patient ‘s underlying condition significantly increases the perioperative risk of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinal pseudoarthrosis
Explanation
Question 4144
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Radiographs of a 20-year-old college athlete who sustained an injury to the ankle reveal no fractures or widening of the ankle mortise. Examination shows swelling at the ankle region and pain with medial lateral compression of the distal tibiofibular joint. Which of the following studies would best help in confirming a diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inversion stress radiograph
Explanation
Question 4145
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A healed fracture of the tibia that demonstrates 25 degrees apex posterior angulation and 28 degrees varus angulation on AP and lateral radiographs is most accurately described as a
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Complex deformity with an angulation in two planes
Explanation
Question 4146
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A normal functioning posterior tibialis tendon is best confirmed by which of the following physical findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronation of the foot during the stance phase of gait
Explanation
Question 4147
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A forward bend examination of an asymptomatic premenarchal 12-year-old girl who has waist asymmetry reveals a right thoracolumbar angle of trunk rotation of 12 degrees. The radiograph shown in Figure 26 reveals a curve that measures 31 degrees between T6 and T11 with the apex to the right. She is Risser 1 and her triradiate cartilage has closed. Management should consist of 1/. An MRI scan
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation and repeat radiographs in 4 months
Explanation
Question 4148
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following advantages does the use of a vascularized fibula graft have over a nonvascularized fibula graft?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Begins to remodel and hypertrophy more quickly
Explanation
Question 4149
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old girl has idiopathic scoliosis with a 52-degree right thoracic curve and a 36-degree left lumbar curve. The rotation of the apical vertebra appears greater in the thoracic curve. A sagittal view radiograph shows the spine to be virtually straight. The iliac apophyses are Risser 2. Treatment should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior fusion of the lumbar curve
Explanation
Question 4150
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 20-year-old college football player sustains a forceful hyperextension injury to his shoulder 4 months after undergoing an anterior capsular shift. Examination 2 weeks later reveals anterior tenderness. He is unable to lift the dorsum of his hand away from his back. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subscapularis rupture
Explanation
Question 4151
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
The familial occurrence of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease may, in some cases, be attributed to
Correct Answer & Explanation
. hypophosphatemia
Explanation
Question 4152
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following methods of treatment of a displaced Lisfranc fracture-dislocation will most reliably lead to good functional results?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Weightbearing short leg cast
Explanation
Question 4153
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
Which of the following metastatic tumors to bone carries the greatest risk of complications from intraoperative bleeding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Breast
Explanation
Question 4154
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old boy has a fracture of the proximal tibia extending from the apophysis of the tubercle up through the posterior part of the proximal tibial epiphysis and into the joint. What is the most likely mechanism of injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Varus stress
Explanation
Question 4155
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
- Figures 27a through 27c show the radiographs of the femur of a 46-year-old man who has a fracture of the right humerus, multiple rib fractures, and fractures of the right femur as a result of a motor vehicle accident. There is a 10-cm clean wound over the anteromedial thigh that communicates with the femoral shaft fracture. The
neurovascular examination of the right leg is normal. After meticulous irrigation and debridement, management of the femoral fractures should consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary internal fixation at both fracture levels
Explanation
Question 4156
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A high school distance runner reports a 3-week history of heel pain while running. Examination elicits no pain with dorsiflexion or with palpitation of the plantar fascia; however, pain is evident with palpitation over the muscular origin of the abductor hallucis. What is the most likely etiology of the pain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Heel spur
Explanation
Question 4157
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 56-year-old laborer sustained a subcoracoid dislocation of the shoulder as a result of falling off a scaffold 3 weeks ago. He now is unable to actively raise his arm and has constant pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Displaced labral tear
Explanation
Question 4158
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 40-year-old woman has progressive pain and limited range of motion in her long finger. Figure 28a shows the radiograph, and Figure 28b shows a biopsy specimen of the same lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Enchondroma
Explanation
Question 4159
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A patient reports persistent pain in the wrist 6 months after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a Galleazi fracture. Radiographs of the wrist in a neutral position are normal. Which of the following studies would best evaluate the reduction of the distal radioulnar joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthrogram of the wrist
Explanation
Question 4160
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A form of renal osteodystrophy that is characterized by pure osteomalacia is caused by
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.