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Question 3781

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

During physical examination, a plexiform neurofibroma is classically described as feeling like which of the following?

. A firm, immobile bony exostosis
. A pulsatile, compressible mass
. A "bag of worms"
. A fluctuant fluid-filled cyst
. A hard, painless subcutaneous nodule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A "bag of worms"


Explanation

Plexiform neurofibromas involve multiple fascicles of a nerve and its branches, creating a complex, irregular mass. On palpation, this is classically described as feeling like a "bag of worms."

Question 3782

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

When utilizing immunohistochemistry to differentiate peripheral nerve sheath tumors from other soft tissue masses, which marker is strongly and uniformly positive in schwannomas?

. Desmin
. Smooth Muscle Actin (SMA)
. S-100
. CD34
. Cytokeratin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. S-100


Explanation

Schwannomas show strong and uniform positivity for S-100 protein due to their neural crest origin. Neurofibromas also stain for S-100, but typically in a more patchy and variable distribution.

Question 3783

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

Which of the following histological features best distinguishes a neurofibroma from a schwannoma?

. Neurofibromas are encapsulated; schwannomas are unencapsulated
. Neurofibromas contain primarily Antoni A areas
. Neurofibromas have scattered nerve fibers intermixed within the tumor
. Neurofibromas exclusively contain Verocay bodies
. Neurofibromas exhibit a strong, uniform S-100 positivity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neurofibromas have scattered nerve fibers intermixed within the tumor


Explanation

Neurofibromas grow interstitially among nerve fascicles, incorporating nerve fibers throughout the tumor matrix. Schwannomas are encapsulated and push nerve fibers to the periphery.

Question 3784

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following factors is considered the most significant poor prognostic indicator in a patient diagnosed with a Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor (MPNST)?

. Association with Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1)
. Tumor size less than 5 cm
. Location in a distal extremity
. Presence of Antoni B tissue
. Low mitotic rate on histology

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Association with Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1)


Explanation

MPNSTs associated with NF1 generally have a worse prognosis, higher recurrence rates, and higher mortality compared to sporadic MPNSTs. Large size and truncal location are also poor prognostic factors.

Question 3785

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

A patient presents with multiple schwannomas without vestibular nerve involvement. Genetic testing for Schwannomatosis is most likely to reveal a mutation in which of the following genes?

. Neurofibromin (NF1)
. Merlin (NF2)
. SMARCB1 or LZTR1
. PTEN
. APC

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SMARCB1 or LZTR1


Explanation

Schwannomatosis is a distinct clinical entity from NF1 and NF2, characterized by multiple schwannomas without bilateral vestibular involvement. It is genetically linked to mutations in the SMARCB1 (INI1) and LZTR1 genes.

Question 3786

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

A 35-year-old female presents with a swelling in the medial aspect of her arm. Which of the following clinical findings is most characteristic of a schwannoma?

. Resting pain that improves with movement
. Painless progressive motor weakness
. A palpable mass with a positive Tinel sign radiating distally
. A rapidly expanding mass with overlying skin necrosis
. A cold, pale distal extremity with absent pulses

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A palpable mass with a positive Tinel sign radiating distally


Explanation

Schwannomas often present as a slow-growing palpable mass. Tapping the mass frequently elicits a positive Tinel sign (paresthesias radiating along the nerve distribution).

Question 3787

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

Which histological description is the classic hallmark of a neurofibroma?

. Antoni A and B regions
. Nuclear palisading forming Verocay bodies
. Wavy spindle cells with "shredded carrot" collagen in a myxoid matrix
. Epithelioid cells forming nests and cords
. Biphasic glandular and spindle cell elements

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wavy spindle cells with "shredded carrot" collagen in a myxoid matrix


Explanation

Neurofibromas are characterized by wavy, serpentine spindle cells (Schwann cells and fibroblasts) set in a myxoid stroma. They classically feature thick, ropey collagen bundles known as "shredded carrot" collagen.

Question 3788

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

On an MRI of the thigh, a well-defined mass is surrounded by a rim of fat at the superior and inferior poles. This "split fat sign" is most indicative of which type of tumor?

. Lipoma
. Peripheral nerve sheath tumor
. Intramuscular hemangioma
. Synovial cyst
. Myositis ossificans

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peripheral nerve sheath tumor


Explanation

The "split fat sign" on MRI represents a layer of normal fat pushed to the proximal and distal poles of a mass as it grows within an intermuscular neurovascular bundle. It is highly characteristic of peripheral nerve sheath tumors like schwannomas.

Question 3789

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumors (MPNSTs) most commonly arise from which of the following pre-existing conditions?

. Solitary schwannoma
. Plexiform neurofibroma
. Traumatic neuroma
. Morton neuroma
. Lipofibromatous hamartoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Plexiform neurofibroma


Explanation

MPNSTs most frequently arise de novo or from the malignant transformation of a pre-existing plexiform neurofibroma in the setting of NF1. Solitary schwannomas have an exceedingly rare rate of malignant transformation.

Question 3790

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A surgeon successfully enucleates a peripheral nerve tumor, yielding a mass with a thick, distinct capsule. Postoperatively, the patient has no new motor deficits. The tumor was most likely a:

. Plexiform neurofibroma
. Solitary neurofibroma
. Schwannoma
. Desmoid tumor
. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Schwannoma


Explanation

Schwannomas possess a true epineural capsule and displace nerve fascicles peripherally, allowing for safe enucleation. Neurofibromas lack a true capsule and are intertwined with fascicles, making deficit-free enucleation nearly impossible.

Question 3791

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

The "fascicular sign" on a T2-weighted MRI of a peripheral nerve tumor is best characterized by which of the following?

. Central hyperintensity and peripheral hypointensity
. Multiple small ring-like structures corresponding to nerve fascicles
. A distinct fat plane separating the tumor from the nerve
. Fluid-fluid levels within the mass indicating hemorrhage
. Extensive peritumoral edema infiltrating the muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Multiple small ring-like structures corresponding to nerve fascicles


Explanation

The "fascicular sign" refers to the appearance of multiple small, ring-like structures within the tumor on MRI, representing individual thickened nerve fascicles. It is a hallmark of benign peripheral nerve sheath tumors.

Question 3792

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

While schwannomas are composed almost exclusively of neoplastic Schwann cells, what cell type combination forms the primary neoplastic component of a neurofibroma?

. Perineurial cells exclusively
. Schwann cells admixed with fibroblasts
. Mast cells exclusively
. Epineurial fibroblasts
. Endothelial cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Schwann cells admixed with fibroblasts


Explanation

Neurofibromas are heterogeneous tumors consisting of neoplastic Schwann cells admixed with fibroblasts, perineurial-like cells, and often numerous mast cells. This distinguishes them from the monotypic Schwann cell population of a schwannoma.

Question 3793

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old with NF1 presents with a progressively enlarging, painful mass in the sciatic nerve distribution. Biopsy reveals spindle cells with high mitotic activity, necrosis, and marked pleomorphism. S-100 staining is patchy and weak. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Cellular schwannoma
. Atypical neurofibroma
. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
. Fibrosarcoma
. Malignant melanoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor


Explanation

High mitotic activity, necrosis, and pleomorphism in a nerve tumor of an NF1 patient strongly indicate an MPNST. Unlike benign schwannomas (strongly S-100 positive), MPNSTs often show patchy, weak, or absent S-100 staining.

Question 3794

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old male presents with severe mid-thigh pain and a large soft tissue mass. Radiographs show a destructive diaphyseal lesion with an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A biopsy is obtained. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most characteristically associated with this diagnosis?

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The clinical presentation and 'onion-skin' appearance are classic for Ewing sarcoma. The most common translocation in Ewing sarcoma is t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion gene. t(X;18) is associated with synovial sarcoma; t(9;22) is extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma; t(2;13) is alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; t(12;16) is myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 3795

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old female presents with diffuse bone pain and recurrent nephrolithiasis. Radiographs demonstrate subperiosteal bone resorption of the radial aspect of the middle phalanges and 'brown tumors' in the long bones. Which of the following laboratory profiles is most consistent with her primary diagnosis?

. Low calcium, low phosphate, high PTH
. High calcium, low phosphate, high PTH
. High calcium, high phosphate, low PTH
. Low calcium, high phosphate, high PTH
. Normal calcium, normal phosphate, remarkably high alkaline phosphatase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High calcium, low phosphate, high PTH


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation (subperiosteal resorption of the radial aspect of middle phalanges, brown tumors) is classic for Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica, driven by Primary Hyperparathyroidism. The hallmark laboratory profile for primary hyperparathyroidism is elevated serum calcium, decreased serum phosphate, and inappropriately elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH).

Question 3796

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

During an open reduction and internal fixation of a femur fracture, the anesthesiologist notes a sudden rise in end-tidal CO2, muscle rigidity, and tachycardia. A diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia is suspected. The definitive treatment for this condition acts by which of the following mechanisms?

. Inhibiting the sodium-potassium pump
. Blocking calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
. Stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors
. Reversing non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade
. Binding directly to voltage-gated sodium channels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Blocking calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum


Explanation

Malignant hyperthermia is triggered by volatile anesthetics or succinylcholine, leading to uncontrolled calcium release via a mutated ryanodine receptor (RYR1). The definitive treatment is IV dantrolene, which works by binding to the RYR1 receptor and inhibiting the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thus halting the hypermetabolic state.

Question 3797

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 4-year-old child is brought to the orthopedic clinic with a painful, firm soft tissue mass on the posterior neck and back. Examination of the child's feet reveals bilateral short, malformed great toes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Open biopsy of the neck mass
. Core needle biopsy of the neck mass
. Observation and genetic testing for an ACVR1 mutation
. Administration of intravenous bisphosphonates
. Surgical excision of the mass with wide margins

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and genetic testing for an ACVR1 mutation


Explanation

The combination of a spontaneous soft tissue mass in the posterior axis and congenital malformation of the great toes is highly suspicious for Fibrodysplasia Ossificans Progressiva (FOP). Biopsy or surgical excision will trigger explosive heterotopic ossification and is strictly contraindicated. Diagnosis is confirmed clinically and via genetic testing for the ACVR1 gene mutation.

Question 3798

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old male sustains a closed femur fracture and undergoes open reduction and internal fixation under general anesthesia. Thirty minutes into the procedure, he develops tachycardia, muscle rigidity, and a rapid rise in end-tidal CO2. His temperature begins to rise rapidly. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug of choice for treating this life-threatening condition?

. Inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump
. Agonism of central alpha-2 adrenergic receptors
. Inhibition of ryanodine receptors to prevent calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
. Competitive antagonism of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
. Activation of GABA receptors in the central nervous system

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inhibition of ryanodine receptors to prevent calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum


Explanation

The patient is experiencing Malignant Hyperthermia, often triggered by volatile anesthetics or succinylcholine. The drug of choice is Dantrolene, which works by inhibiting the ryanodine receptor (RYR1), thereby preventing the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and halting the hypermetabolic muscle contraction.

Question 3799

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 68-year-old male presents with deep, boring thigh pain and systemic fatigue. Radiographs demonstrate multiple 'punched-out' lytic lesions in the proximal femur.

Laboratory studies reveal hypercalcemia and a normocytic anemia. If a bone marrow biopsy is performed, it would most likely reveal an abnormal proliferation of cells that normally secrete which of the following?

. Parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)
. Monoclonal immunoglobulins
. Alkaline phosphatase
. Osteoid matrix
. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Monoclonal immunoglobulins


Explanation

The clinical presentation (older male, 'punched-out' lytic lesions, hypercalcemia, anemia) is classic for Multiple Myeloma, the most common primary malignancy of bone. Multiple myeloma is a neoplasm of plasma cells. Normal plasma cells secrete immunoglobulins, and malignant plasma cells typically secrete monoclonal immunoglobulins or light chains (Bence Jones proteins), detectable on SPEP/UPEP.

Question 3800

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old male presents with localized mid-thigh pain and night sweats. Radiographs reveal a permeative diaphyseal lesion with an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction.

Biopsy demonstrates small round blue cells. The most common chromosomal translocation associated with this condition results in the fusion of which genes?

. SYT-SSX1
. EWS-FLI1
. PAX3-FOXO1
. TLS-CHOP
. COL1A1-PDGFB

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EWS-FLI1


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. Over 85% of Ewing sarcomas are characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) chromosomal translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion gene. SYT-SSX is associated with synovial sarcoma, and TLS-CHOP is seen in myxoid liposarcoma.