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Question 3541

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 5-year-old boy presents with progressive stiffness of his neck and upper back. Examination reveals a short, medially deviated great toe (microdactyly). A firm, warm soft-tissue mass is palpable in the paraspinal region. The parents request a biopsy of the mass. What is the specific gene mutation, and what is the primary reason biopsy is strictly contraindicated?

. GNAS; biopsy will cause malignant transformation
. ACVR1; biopsy will trigger massive heterotopic ossification
. EXT1; biopsy will lead to uncontrolled cartilaginous growth
. LEMD3; biopsy will result in a chronic non-healing wound
. COL1A1; biopsy will result in an intractable pathological fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ACVR1; biopsy will trigger massive heterotopic ossification


Explanation

The patient has Fibrodysplasia Ossificans Progressiva (FOP), caused by an activating mutation in the ACVR1 (ALK2) gene. Trauma, including biopsy or surgery, triggers explosive, irreversible heterotopic ossification and is absolutely contraindicated.

Question 3542

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis
An incidental radiographic finding in a 35-year-old woman shows numerous small, round, well-demarcated sclerotic foci in the periarticular regions of her pelvis, femurs, and humeri. She is completely asymptomatic. If this patient has an associated syndromic skin manifestation, what is it most likely to be?
. Café-au-lait spots
. Subcutaneous lipomas
. Connective tissue nevi (Buschke-Ollendorff syndrome)
. Hemangiomas
. Multiple neurofibromas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Connective tissue nevi (Buschke-Ollendorff syndrome)


Explanation

The radiographic findings describe osteopoikilosis, caused by LEMD3 mutations. When associated with characteristic skin lesions (connective tissue nevi or dermatofibrosis lenticularis disseminata), it is known as Buschke-Ollendorff syndrome.

Question 3543

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old male presents with chronic knee pain. Radiographs reveal a well-circumscribed, eccentrically located lytic lesion in the proximal tibial epiphysis with a thin sclerotic rim. Biopsy demonstrates mononuclear cells with longitudinal nuclear grooves and areas of pericellular 'chicken-wire' calcification. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

. Wide surgical resection and endoprosthetic reconstruction
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Extended intralesional curettage, high-speed burring, and bone grafting
. Observation and repeat radiographs in 6 months
. Primary radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extended intralesional curettage, high-speed burring, and bone grafting


Explanation

The clinical and histological findings are classic for chondroblastoma, a benign but locally aggressive epiphyseal tumor. The gold standard treatment is extended intralesional curettage with high-speed burring and bone grafting or cementation.

Question 3544

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old male undergoes a core needle biopsy of a deep thigh mass. Histology reveals a uniform population of round cells, a prominent myxoid stroma, and a branching capillary network resembling 'chicken-wire'. Which specific chromosomal translocation is most characteristic of this soft tissue sarcoma?

. t(X;18) (SYT-SSX1)
. t(11;22) (EWS-FLI1)
. t(12;16) (FUS-DDIT3)
. t(2;13) (PAX3-FOXO1)
. t(9;22) (EWS-CHN)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;16) (FUS-DDIT3)


Explanation

Myxoid liposarcoma is characterized by the t(12;16)(q13;p11) translocation, which creates the FUS-DDIT3 fusion gene. The 'chicken-wire' capillary network and myxoid stroma are hallmark histological features.

Question 3545

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old patient presents with a large, slow-growing retroperitoneal mass. Biopsy reveals mature adipocytes with focal areas of nuclear atypia and hyperchromatic stromal cells. Molecular testing demonstrates amplification of a specific gene on chromosome 12q13-15. Which of the following genes is amplified in this tumor?

. TP53
. MDM2
. c-MYC
. RB1
. EWSR1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2


Explanation

Well-differentiated liposarcoma (and atypical lipomatous tumors) are characterized by the amplification of MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12q. MDM2 amplification inhibits p53, promoting tumor survival.

Question 3546

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 17-year-old male with a history of a treated proximal humerus chondroblastoma presents 3 years later for routine follow-up. A chest CT reveals three small, asymptomatic bilateral pulmonary nodules. Biopsy of a nodule shows benign-appearing chondroblasts identical to the primary tumor. What is the most appropriate management?

. Systemic multidrug chemotherapy
. Palliative care consultation
. Pulmonary metastasectomy or observation
. Whole lung irradiation
. Radiofrequency ablation of the primary surgical site

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pulmonary metastasectomy or observation


Explanation

Chondroblastomas can rarely produce 'benign' pulmonary implants (1-2% of cases). These implants do not behave like true malignancies and have an excellent prognosis; they are typically managed with surgical resection or observation.

Question 3547

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following epigenetic alterations is highly specific for diagnosing chondroblastoma and distinguishing it from other giant cell-rich bone lesions?

. H3F3A G34W mutation
. H3F3B K36M mutation
. IDH1 R132C mutation
. BRAF V600E mutation
. GNAS mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. H3F3B K36M mutation


Explanation

The H3F3B K36M mutation is found in approximately 90-95% of chondroblastomas. In contrast, the H3F3A G34W mutation is characteristic of giant cell tumors of bone.

Question 3548

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 50-year-old female presents with a 15 cm deep, painless thigh mass. MRI shows a predominantly fatty tumor with thick, nodular septations (>2 mm) and areas of non-lipogenic enhancement. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical approach?
. Marginal excision through the reactive zone
. Intralesional curettage
. Wide local excision with negative margins
. Amputation proximal to the mass
. Liposuction of the fatty mass

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide local excision with negative margins


Explanation

The imaging findings indicate a malignant fatty tumor, likely a liposarcoma. The standard of care for deep soft tissue sarcomas of the extremity is wide local excision with negative margins, often combined with radiation therapy.

Question 3549

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

Which subtype of liposarcoma is unique in its tendency to spread to extrapulmonary sites, specifically necessitating a whole-spine MRI during initial staging to rule out bone metastases?

. Well-differentiated liposarcoma
. Dedifferentiated liposarcoma
. Myxoid liposarcoma
. Pleomorphic liposarcoma
. Spindle cell liposarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Myxoid liposarcoma


Explanation

Myxoid liposarcoma has a uniquely high propensity to metastasize to extrapulmonary sites, particularly the spine. Staging protocols for myxoid liposarcoma mandate an MRI of the entire spine.

Question 3550

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old undergoes curettage of a presumed chondroblastoma.

Pathology shows areas of typical chondroblastoma juxtaposed with multiple blood-filled spaces lined by fibrous septa containing giant cells. What does this secondary finding represent?

. Malignant transformation to telangiectatic osteosarcoma
. Secondary aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC)
. Co-existing giant cell tumor of bone
. Iatrogenic hemorrhage artifact
. Unicameral bone cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Secondary aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC)


Explanation

Secondary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) occur in up to 15-20% of chondroblastomas. Histologically, they present as blood-filled spaces lacking an endothelial lining, but they do not alter the benign nature of the primary tumor.

Question 3551

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 68-year-old male undergoes resection of a retroperitoneal sarcoma. Pathology reveals an abrupt transition from a well-differentiated liposarcoma to a high-grade, non-lipogenic pleomorphic sarcoma. What is the diagnosis?

. Pleomorphic liposarcoma
. Myxoid liposarcoma
. Dedifferentiated liposarcoma
. Atypical lipomatous tumor
. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dedifferentiated liposarcoma


Explanation

Dedifferentiated liposarcoma is characterized by the abrupt histological transition from a well-differentiated liposarcoma to a high-grade non-lipogenic sarcoma. It shares the same MDM2/CDK4 amplification as its well-differentiated counterpart.

Question 3552

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

When differentiating atypical lipomatous tumor (ALT) from well-differentiated liposarcoma (WDL), which of the following is the primary distinguishing factor according to the WHO classification?

. The presence of MDM2 amplification
. The degree of nuclear atypia
. The anatomic location of the tumor
. The percentage of lipoblasts present
. The mitotic index

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anatomic location of the tumor


Explanation

ALT and WDL are morphologically and genetically identical (MDM2 amplified). The terminology is based on anatomic location: ALT is used for extremity/trunk tumors (where complete excision prevents recurrence), while WDL is used for deep locations like the retroperitoneum where local recurrence can be fatal.

Question 3553

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

An 18-year-old female presents with shoulder pain. Imaging shows a lytic epiphyseal lesion in the proximal humerus with a sclerotic rim. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis of chondroblastoma?

. Cytokeratin
. S-100
. CD34
. Desmin
. SMA

Correct Answer & Explanation

. S-100


Explanation

Chondroblastoma cells consistently express S-100 and SOX9, reflecting their chondroid lineage. Cytokeratin is for carcinomas, CD34 for vascular tumors, and Desmin/SMA for muscle tumors.

Question 3554

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 75-year-old female presents with a rapidly growing, painful thigh mass. Biopsy demonstrates a high-grade sarcoma with numerous pleomorphic lipoblasts and complex karyotype with severe aneuploidy. There is no MDM2 amplification or t(12;16) translocation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Myxoid liposarcoma
. Pleomorphic liposarcoma
. Dedifferentiated liposarcoma
. Spindle cell lipoma
. Epithelioid sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pleomorphic liposarcoma


Explanation

Pleomorphic liposarcoma is the rarest and most aggressive subtype, characterized by complex karyotypes lacking the specific translocations or gene amplifications (like MDM2) seen in other liposarcomas.

Question 3555

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Regarding the radiation sensitivity of liposarcoma subtypes, which variant is considered highly radiosensitive and often exhibits dramatic tumor shrinkage following neoadjuvant radiation therapy?

. Well-differentiated liposarcoma
. Pleomorphic liposarcoma
. Myxoid liposarcoma
. Dedifferentiated liposarcoma
. Atypical lipomatous tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Myxoid liposarcoma


Explanation

Myxoid liposarcoma is exquisitely radiosensitive. Neoadjuvant radiation often leads to significant tumor shrinkage, making subsequent surgical resection easier.

Question 3556

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old male presents with hip pain. Radiographs show a lytic lesion in the femoral head epiphysis. Biopsy shows large cells with clear cytoplasm and distinct cell membranes, amidst a cartilaginous matrix. What is the most important differential diagnosis to distinguish from chondroblastoma in this older age group?

. Giant cell tumor of bone
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Enchondroma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clear cell chondrosarcoma


Explanation

Clear cell chondrosarcoma typically presents in the epiphysis of long bones in adults (30-50 years old), whereas chondroblastoma presents in the epiphysis of adolescents. Clear cell chondrosarcoma requires wide resection, unlike the curettage used for chondroblastoma.

Question 3557

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old male presents with a deep, painless mass in his posterior thigh. Core needle biopsy demonstrates a myxoid stroma, scattered lipoblasts, and a prominent branching capillary network. Which cytogenetic abnormality is most characteristic of this tumor?

. t(X;18) (SYT-SSX)
. t(11;22) (EWS-FLI1)
. t(12;16) (FUS-DDIT3)
. MDM2/CDK4 amplification
. Complex unbalanced karyotype

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;16) (FUS-DDIT3)


Explanation

The clinical and histologic description (myxoid stroma, chicken-wire vasculature, lipoblasts) is classic for myxoid liposarcoma. This tumor is characterized by the t(12;16) translocation, which fuses the FUS and DDIT3 genes.

Question 3558

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with chronic knee pain. Radiographs reveal an eccentric, lytic lesion in the distal femoral epiphysis with a thin sclerotic rim.

Biopsy demonstrates mononuclear cells with grooved nuclei and areas of pericellular 'chicken-wire' calcification. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Wide surgical resection and endoprosthetic reconstruction
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Observation and protected weight-bearing
. Radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting


Explanation

The presentation and histology are pathognomonic for a chondroblastoma, a benign but locally aggressive epiphyseal tumor. The standard of care is extended intralesional curettage, often augmented with a high-speed burr, followed by bone grafting or cementation.

Question 3559

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old man undergoes resection of a massive retroperitoneal tumor. Histology shows an abrupt transition between areas of well-differentiated adipocytic proliferation and areas of high-grade, non-lipogenic sarcoma. Which molecular marker is critically amplified in this pathology?

. SS18
. EWSR1
. MDM2
. SMARCB1 (INI1)
. MYC

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2


Explanation

This is a dedifferentiated liposarcoma, which typically arises from a well-differentiated liposarcoma, especially in the retroperitoneum. Both well-differentiated and dedifferentiated liposarcomas are characterized by the amplification of MDM2 and CDK4 on chromosome 12.

Question 3560

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old boy presents with progressive shoulder pain. Radiographs demonstrate an epiphyseal lesion in the proximal humerus. Biopsy confirms chondroblastoma. Two years after successful curettage, routine imaging reveals three small, asymptomatic lung nodules. Biopsy of a lung nodule shows histologically benign chondroblastoma. What is the most appropriate management?

. Systemic chemotherapy
. Surgical wedge resection of the nodules
. Whole lung irradiation
. Radiofrequency ablation
. Palliative care

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical wedge resection of the nodules


Explanation

Chondroblastoma is a benign tumor that can rarely produce 'benign metastases' to the lungs (1-2% of cases). The standard treatment for these lung lesions is surgical resection, which generally provides an excellent prognosis and is often curative.