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Question 3461

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 24-year-old male presents with a painless, firm nodule on the palmar aspect of his hand. It was previously excised as a 'ganglion cyst' but rapidly recurred. Biopsy reveals a nodular proliferation of polygonal cells with central necrosis, mimicking a granuloma. Immunohistochemistry is positive for cytokeratin and EMA, but negative for INI1. Which of the following is a classic characteristic of this tumor?

. Propensity for skip lesions within the same bone
. Spread primarily through lymphatic pathways
. Pathognomonic t(X;18) translocation
. Almost exclusive occurrence in the elderly
. Benign clinical course with no metastatic potential

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spread primarily through lymphatic pathways


Explanation

Epithelioid sarcoma typically presents as a distal extremity nodule in young adults, often mimicking benign processes like granulomas. It is notorious for early lymphatic metastasis, necessitating sentinel lymph node biopsy or regional node evaluation.

Question 3462

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old female presents with a deep soft tissue mass in her foot. Biopsy shows uniform plump spindle cells in nests separated by fibrous septa. Immunohistochemistry is positive for S100 and HMB45. Which of the following translocations is characteristic of this diagnosis?

. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(12;22)
. t(2;13)
. t(11;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;22)


Explanation

Clear cell sarcoma, historically called melanoma of soft parts, is characterized by the t(12;22) translocation involving EWSR1 and ATF1. It predominantly affects the distal extremities (foot and ankle) and stains positive for melanocytic markers.

Question 3463

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old male complains of progressive hip stiffness and mechanical catching. A radiograph reveals multiple calcified bodies of uniform size within the joint space.

What is the primary underlying pathophysiology of this condition?

. Metaplasia of the synovial membrane
. Deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals
. Fragmentation and detachment of marginal osteophytes
. Traumatic avulsion of osteochondral fragments
. Infection-induced dystrophic calcification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metaplasia of the synovial membrane


Explanation

Primary synovial chondromatosis involves the benign, neoplastic metaplasia of synovial tissue into hyaline cartilage. These cartilaginous nodules can detach to form loose bodies, which subsequently undergo endochondral ossification.

Question 3464

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old female presents with a recurrent, painless, monoarticular knee effusion. MRI demonstrates a large joint effusion and nodular synovial proliferation with prominent 'blooming artifact' on gradient-echo sequences. What genetic alteration primarily drives this condition?

. COL1A1-PDGFB fusion
. MDM2 amplification
. t(1;2) translocation causing CSF1 overexpression
. SS18-SSX fusion
. IDH1 mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(1;2) translocation causing CSF1 overexpression


Explanation

Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (historically PVNS) is driven by a t(1;2) translocation that leads to overexpression of Colony-Stimulating Factor 1 (CSF1). The characteristic MRI blooming artifact is due to extensive hemosiderin deposition from recurrent microhemorrhages.

Question 3465

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 22-year-old female presents with a slow-growing, painless mass in her deep anterior thigh. Staging CT reveals multiple asymptomatic pulmonary nodules, and a brain MRI reveals a solitary metastasis. Histology shows large polygonal cells in a pseudoalveolar pattern with PAS-positive, diastase-resistant crystalline inclusions. Which molecular finding is expected?

. t(X;18) creating SS18-SSX
. ASPSCR1-TFE3 fusion
. t(12;16) creating FUS-DDIT3
. EWS-FLI1 fusion
. PAX3-FOXO1 fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ASPSCR1-TFE3 fusion


Explanation

Alveolar soft part sarcoma is uniquely characterized by the ASPSCR1-TFE3 fusion protein. It classically presents in young adults with slow-growing extremity masses and a paradoxically high rate of early metastasis to the brain and lungs.

Question 3466

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old male undergoes a core biopsy of a deep 12 cm painless thigh mass. Pathology reveals mature adipose tissue with scattered atypical hyperchromatic stromal cells. What molecular test is most specific to differentiate this atypical lipomatous tumor from a benign lipoma?

. MDM2 and CDK4 amplification
. FUS-DDIT3 fusion
. SYT-SSX translocation
. Beta-catenin mutation
. p53 deletion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2 and CDK4 amplification


Explanation

Well-differentiated liposarcoma (atypical lipomatous tumor) is characterized by the amplification of MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12. This molecular signature reliably distinguishes it from a benign lipoma.

Question 3467

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old female presents with right thigh pain. Radiographs demonstrate a 'ground-glass' lytic lesion in the proximal femur with varus bowing. MRI of the thigh incidentally reveals multiple well-circumscribed intramuscular masses showing bright T2 hyperintensity. The intramuscular masses most likely represent:

. Myxoid liposarcomas
. Intramuscular myxomas
. Rhabdomyosarcomas
. Soft tissue hemangiomas
. Schwannomas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intramuscular myxomas


Explanation

Mazabraud syndrome is the rare association of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia and multiple intramuscular myxomas. The myxomas are benign, hypocellular lesions that appear extremely bright on T2-weighted MRI.

Question 3468

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old male presents with a rapidly enlarging soft tissue mass in his forearm. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells. Cytogenetic testing confirms a t(2;13) translocation. Which fusion protein is pathognomonic for this diagnosis?

. EWS-FLI1
. PAX3-FOXO1
. SYT-SSX1
. TLS-CHOP
. COL1A1-PDGFB

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PAX3-FOXO1


Explanation

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma is characterized by the t(2;13) translocation, generating the PAX3-FOXO1 fusion protein. This subtype portends a significantly worse prognosis compared to embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma and requires aggressive multimodal therapy.

Question 3469

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 7-year-old female presents with precocious puberty, cafe-au-lait spots with irregular 'coast of Maine' borders, and an antalgic gait. Radiographs show a large, expansile lytic lesion in the proximal femur. This syndrome is caused by a somatic, post-zygotic activating mutation in which gene?

. GNAS
. EXT1
. NF1
. IDH1
. P53

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

McCune-Albright syndrome features polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait macules, and endocrinopathies like precocious puberty. It is caused by an activating missense mutation in the GNAS gene, which encodes the alpha subunit of a stimulatory G protein.

Question 3470

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old female presents with a rapidly enlarging, painless 10 cm mass in her proximal thigh. Core needle biopsy reveals highly pleomorphic spindle cells in a storiform pattern with numerous atypical mitoses. Immunohistochemistry is completely negative for cytokeratin, S100, desmin, and SMA. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma
. Synovial sarcoma
. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
. Clear cell sarcoma
. Epithelioid sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma


Explanation

Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (formerly malignant fibrous histiocytoma) is the most common high-grade soft tissue sarcoma in older adults. It is considered a diagnosis of exclusion, lacking any specific immunohistochemical markers of differentiation.

Question 3471

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 24-year-old male presents with a painless, slow-growing nodule on his right palm. Excisional biopsy demonstrates a granuloma-like architecture with central necrosis surrounded by atypical epithelioid cells. Immunohistochemistry reveals loss of SMARCB1 (INI1) expression. What is the most common pattern of metastasis for this lesion?

. Pulmonary skip lesions
. Lymphatic spread
. Hepatic metastasis
. Osteoblastic bone lesions
. Intra-articular seeding

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lymphatic spread


Explanation

Epithelioid sarcoma often presents as a painless nodule in the distal extremities of young adults and is characterized by loss of INI1. Uniquely among soft tissue sarcomas, it has a high propensity for regional lymphatic metastasis.

Question 3472

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old female presents with a deep, highly vascular mass in her right thigh. Staging workup reveals asymptomatic brain metastases. Cytogenetic testing identifies a t(X;17)(p11;q25) translocation. What is the diagnosis?

. Synovial sarcoma
. Clear cell sarcoma
. Alveolar soft part sarcoma
. Angiosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alveolar soft part sarcoma


Explanation

Alveolar soft part sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;17) translocation resulting in the ASPSCR1-TFE3 fusion protein. It frequently presents with early metastasis to the brain and lungs despite a slow-growing primary tumor.

Question 3473

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 32-year-old male presents with a mass intimately associated with his Achilles tendon. Histology shows nested cells with prominent nucleoli. The tumor cells stain strongly positive for S100 and HMB-45. Which of the following translocations is most characteristic?

. t(12;22) EWS-ATF1
. t(X;18) SYT-SSX
. t(12;16) FUS-DDIT3
. t(2;13) PAX3-FOXO1
. t(11;22) EWS-FLI1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;22) EWS-ATF1


Explanation

Clear cell sarcoma (melanoma of soft parts) typically arises near tendons or aponeuroses and shares immunohistochemical markers with melanoma, including S100 and HMB-45. It is characterized by the t(12;22) EWS-ATF1 translocation.

Question 3474

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 29-year-old pregnant female presents with a rapidly enlarging, firm mass in her anterior abdominal wall. Biopsy shows spindle cells arranged in broad, sweeping fascicles without malignant nuclear features. Nuclear beta-catenin staining is positive. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Wide local excision with 2 cm margins
. Neoadjuvant radiation therapy
. Observation with MRI surveillance
. Amputation
. Systemic doxorubicin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with MRI surveillance


Explanation

Desmoid tumors (aggressive fibromatosis) are locally aggressive but do not metastasize, and they frequently stabilize or regress spontaneously. Active observation is the recommended initial management paradigm over surgery due to high post-operative recurrence rates.

Question 3475

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old man presents with a large retroperitoneal mass. Biopsy demonstrates areas of well-differentiated adipocytic proliferation transitioning abruptly into a high-grade, non-lipogenic sarcoma. Amplification of which of the following genes on chromosome 12q13-15 is a hallmark of this disease?

. MYC
. MDM2
. p53
. RB1
. PTEN

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2


Explanation

Both well-differentiated and dedifferentiated liposarcomas are characterized by the amplification of MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12q. Dedifferentiated liposarcoma carries a worse prognosis and is often found in the retroperitoneum.

Question 3476

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

An 80-year-old female presents with a rapidly growing, deep soft tissue mass in her proximal thigh.

Histology reveals a storiform pattern of highly pleomorphic, bizarre, multinucleated giant cells with frequent mitoses and areas of necrosis. Extensive immunohistochemical staining is negative for specific lineage markers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Synovial sarcoma
. Liposarcoma
. Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma
. Rhabdomyosarcoma
. Leiomyosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma


Explanation

Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (UPS), formerly known as malignant fibrous histiocytoma, is a diagnosis of exclusion representing the most common high-grade soft tissue sarcoma in older adults. It lacks a specific immunohistochemical profile or pathognomonic translocation.

Question 3477

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 6-year-old boy presents with a rapidly enlarging mass in his forearm. Histologic examination demonstrates small round blue cells with interspersed rhabdomyoblasts. Molecular testing is positive for a t(2;13) translocation. Which fusion gene product is responsible for this condition?

. EWS-FLI1
. PAX3-FOXO1
. SYT-SSX1
. FUS-DDIT3
. EWS-ATF1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PAX3-FOXO1


Explanation

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma is characterized by the t(2;13) translocation, creating the PAX3-FOXO1 fusion gene, which is associated with a poor prognosis. EWS-FLI1 is seen in Ewing sarcoma, while SYT-SSX1 is seen in synovial sarcoma.

Question 3478

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male presents with a multi-nodular, firm cutaneous plaque on his trunk. Biopsy reveals a uniform spindle cell proliferation arranged in a prominent storiform ("cartwheel") pattern that infiltrates subcutaneous fat in a honeycomb appearance. Tumor cells strongly express CD34. What targeted systemic therapy can be utilized for unresectable or metastatic disease?

. Denosumab
. Imatinib
. Sorafenib
. Doxorubicin
. Rituximab

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Imatinib


Explanation

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP) is driven by a t(17;22) translocation leading to COL1A1-PDGFB fusion, resulting in constitutive activation of the PDGF receptor. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that targets PDGFR and is highly effective for unresectable cases.

Question 3479

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 42-year-old female with numerous cafe-au-lait spots and cutaneous neurofibromas presents with sudden, rapid enlargement and severe pain in a long-standing thigh mass.

A biopsy confirms malignant transformation. What underlying genetic syndrome is the primary risk factor for this transformation?

. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
. Neurofibromatosis type 1
. McCune-Albright syndrome
. Gardner syndrome
. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neurofibromatosis type 1


Explanation

Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (MPNST) often arise from pre-existing plexiform neurofibromas in patients with Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). A sudden increase in size or new onset of pain in a neurofibroma should raise high clinical suspicion for malignant transformation.

Question 3480

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old female presents with chronic knee swelling, catching, and brown synovial fluid on aspiration. MRI shows a joint effusion and nodular synovial thickening with "blooming artifact" on gradient-echo sequences. What specific molecular target is implicated in the pathogenesis of this disease?

. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)
. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a)
. Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)
. Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)


Explanation

Tenosynovial giant cell tumor (diffuse type is also known as PVNS) is driven by a t(1;2) translocation resulting in overexpression of CSF1. This recruits non-neoplastic inflammatory cells that form the bulk of the tumor mass, making CSF1 receptor inhibitors like pexidartinib effective treatments.