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Question 3341

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following primary carcinomas is most notorious for producing highly vascular, purely lytic osseous metastases that are largely resistant to radiation therapy, making wide resection or stabilization the preferred management?

. Prostate carcinoma
. Breast carcinoma
. Lung carcinoma
. Renal cell carcinoma
. Multiple myeloma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Renal cell carcinoma


Explanation

Renal cell carcinoma (RCC) metastases to bone are characteristically hypervascular and radioresistant. Preoperative embolization is often mandatory to prevent massive hemorrhage during surgical stabilization or wide resection.

Question 3342

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 24-year-old female presents with a painless, slow-growing mass on the posterior aspect of her distal femur. Radiographs reveal a heavily ossified, lobulated mass on the cortical surface with a radiolucent cleft separating the tumor from the underlying cortex. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Periosteal osteosarcoma
. Parosteal osteosarcoma
. High-grade surface osteosarcoma
. Osteochondroma
. Myositis ossificans

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parosteal osteosarcoma


Explanation

Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade surface osteosarcoma classically found on the posterior distal femur. The radiolucent cleft between the heavily ossified tumor mass and the host bone cortex is known as the "string sign".

Question 3343

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy undergoes neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection for a conventional high-grade osteosarcoma of the distal femur. Which of the following factors provides the most important prognostic information for his long-term survival?

. The specific histologic subtype of the osteosarcoma
. The initial size of the tumor upon presentation
. The percentage of tumor necrosis noted on the post-resection specimen
. The degree of elevation in serum alkaline phosphatase preoperatively
. The presence of a Codman's triangle on the initial radiograph

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The percentage of tumor necrosis noted on the post-resection specimen


Explanation

The histologic response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy, measured by the percentage of tumor necrosis in the resected specimen, is the single most important prognostic indicator for overall survival in osteosarcoma. Greater than 90% necrosis is defined as a good response.

Question 3344

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old girl presents with a painful, swollen mid-thigh. Radiographs show a permeative diaphyseal lesion with an "onion-skin" periosteal reaction. A biopsy reveals sheets of uniform, small blue round cells. Which of the following genetic translocations is most characteristic of this diagnosis?

. t(11;22) producing EWS-FLI1 fusion
. t(X;18) producing SYT-SSX fusion
. t(12;16) producing FUS-DDIT3 fusion
. t(9;22) producing BCR-ABL fusion
. t(2;13) producing PAX3-FOXO1 fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22) producing EWS-FLI1 fusion


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma typically presents as a permeative diaphyseal lesion with an "onion-skin" periosteal reaction and consists of small round blue cells expressing CD99. The hallmark cytogenetic abnormality is the t(11;22) translocation, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein.

Question 3345

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old man presents with deep, persistent pelvic pain. Radiographs reveal a large, ill-defined destructive lesion in the ilium with "ring and arc" calcifications. Core needle biopsy confirms a grade 2 conventional chondrosarcoma. What is the most appropriate primary treatment modality?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Intralesional curettage with phenol or liquid nitrogen adjuvant
. Wide surgical resection alone
. Definitive high-dose radiation therapy
. Radiofrequency ablation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection alone


Explanation

Conventional high-grade and intermediate-grade (grade 2) chondrosarcomas are generally resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation therapy. The definitive treatment is wide surgical resection to achieve negative margins.

Question 3346

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old man with a known history of Neurofibromatosis type 1 reports that a long-standing, palpable mass in his thigh has recently doubled in size and become exquisitely painful. MRI shows an enlarging, heterogeneous mass along the sciatic nerve. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Malignant transformation to an osteosarcoma
. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (MPNST)
. Benign solitary schwannoma
. Spontaneous hematoma within a plexiform neurofibroma
. Soft tissue desmoid tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (MPNST)


Explanation

Patients with NF-1 have an 8-10% lifetime risk of developing a Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor (MPNST). Sudden rapid growth and new-onset severe pain in a pre-existing plexiform neurofibroma strongly suggest malignant transformation.

Question 3347

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

When performing an incisional biopsy of a suspected primary malignant bone tumor in the distal femur, which of the following is an absolute surgical principle?

. Utilize a transverse incision to maximize soft tissue coverage
. Use a standard vastus-splitting approach for optimal visualization
. Elevate large musculocutaneous flaps to expose the entire tumor volume
. Ensure the biopsy tract is placed within the planned definitive resection bed
. Clamp the tourniquet throughout the entire procedure and closure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ensure the biopsy tract is placed within the planned definitive resection bed


Explanation

The biopsy tract is considered contaminated with tumor cells and must be excised en bloc during definitive surgery. Longitudinal incisions are used to facilitate future wide excision, and meticulous hemostasis (deflating the tourniquet prior to closure) prevents tumor-seeding hematomas.

Question 3348

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old boy presents with knee pain. Radiographs reveal a metaphyseal permeative lesion in the distal femur with a 'sunburst' periosteal reaction. What is the most important prognostic factor for his long-term survival following neoadjuvant chemotherapy and wide resection?

. Initial absolute tumor volume on MRI
. Specific histological subclassification of the tumor
. Percentage of tumor necrosis found at the time of definitive resection
. Presence of skip metastases on initial staging MRI
. Pre-treatment serum alkaline phosphatase levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Percentage of tumor necrosis found at the time of definitive resection


Explanation

The percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the single most important prognostic factor for overall survival in osteosarcoma. Greater than 90% necrosis indicates a good response to chemotherapy and a significantly better prognosis.

Question 3349

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy presents with a diaphyseal femur mass, fever, and elevated ESR. Radiographs show an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Cytogenetics reveal a t(11;22) translocation. Which fusion protein is characteristic of this tumor?

. SYT-SSX
. EWS-FLI1
. TLS-CHOP
. PAX3-FKHR
. COL1A1-PDGFB

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EWS-FLI1


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is classically characterized by the t(11;22) translocation resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. This cytogenetic marker is present in approximately 85-90% of Ewing sarcoma cases.

Question 3350

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 14-year-old boy complains of right thigh pain that is worse at night and dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. CT scan shows a 7 mm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerosis in the femoral diaphysis. What is the primary mediator responsible for his specific pain pattern?

. Histamine
. Bradykinin
. Interleukin-1
. Prostaglandin E2
. Substance P

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2


Explanation

Osteoid osteomas characteristically secrete high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) from the nidus. This leads to intense, night-time pain that is highly responsive to NSAIDs.

Question 3351

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 55-year-old man presents with an enlarging, painful mass in his proximal femur. Radiographs show a lytic lesion with 'popcorn' calcifications and endosteal scalloping. What is the standard of care for a conventional high-grade chondrosarcoma?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection
. Wide surgical resection alone
. Intralesional curettage with phenol adjuvant
. Definitive high-dose radiation therapy
. Isolated limb perfusion with melphalan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection alone


Explanation

Conventional chondrosarcomas are notoriously resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation therapy due to their poor vascularity and slow growth fraction. Wide surgical resection is the primary and most effective definitive treatment.

Question 3352

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy presents with thigh pain and fever. Radiographs show a permeative diaphyseal lesion with an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. A core needle biopsy is performed. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most characteristic of this diagnosis?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q34;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The patient has Ewing sarcoma, classically presenting as a permeative diaphyseal lesion with onion-skin periostitis. The characteristic translocation is t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the oncogenic EWS-FLI1 fusion protein.

Question 3353

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male with a known diagnosis of Neurofibromatosis Type 1 reports rapid enlargement and new onset of severe, rest pain in a pre-existing plexiform neurofibroma in his thigh.

What is the most appropriate next step to evaluate for malignant transformation?

. Core needle biopsy in the office
. FDG-PET scan
. Plain radiographs of the femur
. Reassurance and repeat clinical exam in 6 months
. Empiric radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. FDG-PET scan


Explanation

Rapid growth and new rest pain in a plexiform neurofibroma strongly suggest transformation to a Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor (MPNST). An FDG-PET scan is highly sensitive for identifying malignant areas (high SUV) to guide an accurate biopsy.

Question 3354

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old male presents with shoulder pain. Radiographs reveal a large, destructive lesion in the proximal humerus with intralesional 'popcorn' calcifications. Biopsy confirms a grade 2 conventional chondrosarcoma. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection
. Definitive external beam radiation therapy
. Wide surgical resection alone
. Curettage, burring, and cementation
. Primary amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection alone


Explanation

Conventional intermediate- and high-grade chondrosarcomas are largely resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation. Wide surgical resection with negative margins is the definitive mainstay of treatment.

Question 3355

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 22-year-old male presents with dull, aching pain in his mid-back that is not significantly relieved by ibuprofen. Imaging shows a 3.5 cm lytic lesion with central mineralization in the posterior elements of T8. Histology demonstrates interlacing trabeculae of woven bone lined by prominent osteoblasts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Giant cell tumor
. Osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoblastoma


Explanation

The histology is identical to an osteoid osteoma, but the size (>2 cm), location in the spine's posterior elements, and lack of dramatic response to NSAIDs are classic for osteoblastoma. Unlike osteoid osteomas, osteoblastomas can be locally aggressive.

Question 3356

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following accurately describes the genetic etiology of Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1)?

. Mutation in the NF2 gene on chromosome 22
. Defective production of the tumor suppressor protein merlin
. Loss-of-function mutation in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17
. Abnormal amplification of the MDM2 gene
. Balanced chromosomal translocation t(11;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss-of-function mutation in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17


Explanation

NF1 is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a mutation in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17. This leads to a deficiency of the protein neurofibromin, resulting in overactivity of the Ras signaling pathway.

Question 3357

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male presents with a rapidly expanding, painful mass in his left thigh. He has a known history of NF1 and multiple plexiform neurofibromas. Biopsy reveals a high-grade spindle cell sarcoma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (MPNST)
. Synovial sarcoma
. Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma
. Fibrosarcoma
. Rhabdomyosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (MPNST)


Explanation

Patients with NF1 have up to a 10% lifetime risk of developing an MPNST. These highly aggressive tumors typically arise from the malignant transformation of a pre-existing plexiform neurofibroma.

Question 3358

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

In the evaluation of primary pediatric bone tumors, which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is considered pathognomonic for Ewing Sarcoma?

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)
. MDM2 amplification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the balanced translocation t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. The t(X;18) translocation is characteristically seen in synovial sarcoma.

Question 3359

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old woman presents with a lytic lesion in the distal femoral epiphysis extending to the subchondral bone. Biopsy shows mononuclear stromal cells and multinucleated giant cells. Which targeted therapy is most appropriate for extensive, unresectable disease?

. Imatinib
. Denosumab
. Rituximab
. Bevacizumab
. Doxorubicin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Denosumab


Explanation

Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) of bone is characterized by RANKL expression by the neoplastic stromal cells. Denosumab, a monoclonal antibody against RANKL, is highly effective for unresectable or metastatic GCT.

Question 3360

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 16-year-old boy presents with multiple non-ossifying fibromas (NOFs), café-au-lait macules, and intellectual disability. Genetic testing for NF1 is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. McCune-Albright syndrome
. Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome
. Ollier disease
. Maffucci syndrome
. Mazabraud syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome


Explanation

Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome is characterized by multiple NOFs, café-au-lait spots, and intellectual disability. It mimics NF1 clinically but lacks the NF1 gene mutation.