This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3241
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 13-year-old girl presents with knee pain. MRI reveals a multiloculated, expansile metaphyseal lesion in the proximal tibia with prominent fluid-fluid levels. Biopsy confirms an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC). What primary genetic alteration is frequently associated with primary ABCs?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. USP6 gene rearrangement
Explanation
Primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts are now recognized as true neoplasms driven by USP6 gene rearrangements (typically t(16;17)). Fluid-fluid levels on MRI are characteristic, representing blood settling in cystic spaces.
Question 3242
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 17-year-old male presents with dull, aching back pain that is not relieved by NSAIDs. Radiographs show a 3 cm expansile lesion in the posterior elements of L3. Biopsy reveals the following histology.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoblastoma
Explanation
The image shows loose fibrovascular connective tissue intermixed with irregular osteoid, typical of osteoblastoma. Unlike osteoid osteoma, osteoblastomas are larger than 2 cm and the pain is typically not relieved by NSAIDs.
Question 3243
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 8-year-old boy presents with a permeative lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the femur with a prominent periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals sheets of uniform small round blue cells that are CD99 positive. Which specific chromosomal translocation is most characteristic of this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(11;22)
Explanation
Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumor characterized by strong CD99 positivity and the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation. This results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein, which acts as an aberrant transcription factor.
Question 3244
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy with distal femoral osteosarcoma completes neoadjuvant chemotherapy and undergoes limb-salvage surgery. Which of the following is the most important independent prognostic factor for his long-term survival?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Percentage of tumor necrosis in the resected specimen
Explanation
The degree of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the most significant prognostic factor for overall survival in osteosarcoma. Greater than 90% necrosis indicates a good histological response to chemotherapy.
Question 3245
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 6-year-old girl presents with a limp, precocious puberty, and large, irregular cafe-au-lait spots on her torso. Radiographs show ground-glass appearing expansile lesions in her proximal femur resulting in a "shepherd's crook" deformity. What is the underlying genetic mutation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. GNAS1
Explanation
McCune-Albright syndrome consists of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, endocrinopathies (like precocious puberty), and cafe-au-lait spots with "coast of Maine" irregular borders. It is caused by a somatic activating mutation in the GNAS1 gene.
Question 3246
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 7-year-old boy from Connecticut presents with a massive, painless right knee effusion. He is afebrile, weight-bearing, and has a WBC of 8,000 cells/mcL and an ESR of 25 mm/h. Joint aspiration reveals a WBC count of 45,000/mcL. Gram stain is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Two-tiered serological testing for Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation
A large, relatively painless joint effusion in a Lyme-endemic area without significant systemic toxicity strongly suggests Lyme arthritis. The diagnosis is confirmed via two-tiered serology (EIA/IFA followed by Western blot).
Question 3247
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old male presents with chronic, dull back pain that is not completely relieved by NSAIDs. Radiographs show a 3 cm expansile lesion in the posterior elements of the lumbar spine. A biopsy is obtained, revealing loose fibrovascular connective tissue intermixed with irregular woven bone trabeculae and active osteoblasts, with no nuclear atypia.
Which of the following statements is true regarding this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It is histologically indistinguishable from an osteoid osteoma.
Explanation
Osteoblastomas are histologically identical to osteoid osteomas but are differentiated primarily by size (greater than 2 cm). Unlike osteoid osteomas, they do not produce proportional prostaglandin E2 levels, so they lack the classic dramatic pain relief with NSAIDs.
Question 3248
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old boy presents with severe, progressive knee pain. Radiographs reveal a mixed lytic and sclerotic lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis with a "sunburst" periosteal reaction and Codman's triangle. Core needle biopsy confirms high-grade, conventional osteosarcoma. Which of the following factors is most predictive of this patient's long-term survival?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy
Explanation
The most important prognostic factor for overall survival in high-grade osteosarcoma is the histologic response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy. A good response is defined as greater than 90% tumor necrosis in the resected specimen.
Question 3249
Topic: Bone Tumors
An 8-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after a minor fall onto his arm. Radiographs demonstrate a pathologic fracture through a centrally located, purely radiolucent lesion in the proximal humeral metaphysis. A radiopaque fragment is noted resting at the dependent portion of the cyst (the "fallen leaf" sign). What is the most appropriate initial management for this presentation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction and sling immobilization
Explanation
This presentation is pathognomonic for a fractured unicameral bone cyst (UBC). The initial management is nonoperative with closed reduction and immobilization to allow the fracture to heal; many UBCs will spontaneously consolidate during the fracture healing process.
Question 3250
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 17-year-old male complains of chronic, dull back pain that is worse at night but has an inconsistent response to NSAIDs. A biopsy is obtained, and the histology demonstrates loose fibrovascular connective tissue intermixed with irregular osteoid and plump osteoblasts.
Which of the following clinical or radiographic features distinguishes this lesion from an osteoid osteoma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lesion diameter greater than 2.0 cm
Explanation
Osteoblastomas are histologically identical to osteoid osteomas but are defined by a size greater than 2.0 cm. They typically have a varied response to NSAIDs and lack the massive reactive sclerosis often seen in osteoid osteomas.
Question 3251
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 8-year-old boy presents with an aggressive, permeative diaphyseal lesion in his femur with a classic 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A core needle biopsy is performed to confirm the diagnosis. Which immunohistochemical marker is most consistently positive in this specific tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. CD99 (MIC2)
Explanation
The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma strongly and diffusely expresses the CD99 (MIC2) surface antigen due to the characteristic t(11;22) translocation forming the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein.
Question 3252
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 10-year-old girl complains of intermittent proximal tibial pain for 3 months. Laboratory tests show a normal WBC count and a slightly elevated ESR. Radiographs reveal a well-circumscribed lucency in the proximal tibial metaphysis surrounded by a thick sclerotic margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Brodie's abscess
Explanation
A Brodie's abscess is a form of subacute osteomyelitis that presents with mild or absent systemic signs. Radiographically, it appears as a well-defined lytic lesion with a dense sclerotic rim, most commonly in the metaphysis of long bones.
Question 3253
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old boy presents with multiple painless, bony bumps over his knees and shoulders. Radiographs show sessile bony projections that are continuous with the medullary cavity of the host bone. Mutations in which of the following genes are responsible for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. EXT1 and EXT2
Explanation
Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (MHE) is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the tumor suppressor genes EXT1 and EXT2. These mutations disrupt heparan sulfate synthesis, leading to the formation of multiple osteochondromas.
Question 3254
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old girl gets an ankle radiograph after a mild sprain. An incidental eccentric, lucent, cortically-based lesion with a scalloped sclerotic border is found in the distal tibial metaphysis. She has no pain at the site. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reassurance and observation
Explanation
The radiographic description is classic for a non-ossifying fibroma (NOF). Since the lesion is asymptomatic and incidentally found, reassurance and observation are appropriate as these lesions spontaneously ossify and resolve by skeletal maturity.
Question 3255
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old male is diagnosed with high-grade osteosarcoma of the distal femur. He undergoes 10 weeks of neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection. Pathologic analysis of the resected specimen reveals 95% tumor necrosis. What does this finding indicate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A favorable prognosis and good response to chemotherapy
Explanation
The percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the most important prognostic factor for non-metastatic high-grade osteosarcoma. A necrosis rate of >90% indicates a good response and correlates with significantly improved survival.
Question 3256
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old boy presents with knee pain and a large soft tissue mass around the proximal fibula. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells. Molecular analysis confirms a t(11;22) chromosomal translocation. Which fusion protein is typically generated by this translocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. EWS-FLI1
Explanation
The t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation is the hallmark of Ewing sarcoma, present in about 85% of cases. This translocation results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion gene, which acts as an aberrant transcription factor promoting tumorigenesis.
Question 3257
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
When performing an incisional biopsy of a suspected malignant primary bone tumor in the lower extremity, which of the following principles must be strictly adhered to?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Place the incision in line with the planned definitive extensile surgical approach
Explanation
Biopsy tracts are considered contaminated with tumor cells and must be entirely excised during the definitive wide resection. Therefore, the biopsy incision must be strictly longitudinal and placed within the planned surgical excision ellipse.
Question 3258
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old male presents with deep pelvic pain. Radiographs reveal a large, destructive lesion in the ilium with 'rings and arcs' calcification. Biopsy confirms conventional high-grade chondrosarcoma. What is the mainstay of treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Wide surgical resection
Explanation
Conventional chondrosarcoma is notoriously resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation therapy due to its low mitotic fraction and poor vascularity. Wide surgical resection with negative margins is the only potentially curative treatment.
Question 3259
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 68-year-old man complains of severe lower back pain and fatigue. Radiographs show multiple 'punched-out' lytic lesions in his skull and pelvis. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate next step to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Serum and urine protein electrophoresis (SPEP/UPEP)
Explanation
Multiple myeloma is the most common primary malignancy of bone in adults, characterized by punched-out lytic lesions without reactive sclerosis. The best initial diagnostic tests are SPEP and UPEP to detect a monoclonal paraprotein spike.
Question 3260
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 19-year-old male reports right thigh pain that is worse at night and dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Imaging shows a 0.8 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerotic bone in the femoral diaphysis. What is the treatment of choice if he fails medical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Percutaneous radiofrequency ablation (RFA)
Explanation
The clinical presentation and imaging are classic for an osteoid osteoma. If symptoms persist despite NSAIDs, minimally invasive percutaneous radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is the treatment of choice, offering high success rates with minimal morbidity.
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