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Question 3121

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old male presents with a large pelvic mass. Biopsy demonstrates atypical chondrocytes with binucleation and myxoid stroma, consistent with a high-grade conventional chondrosarcoma. What is the most appropriate primary treatment modality?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by limb salvage
. Radiation therapy followed by surgical resection
. Wide surgical resection alone
. Intralesional curettage and cryotherapy
. Systemic targeted immunotherapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection alone


Explanation

Conventional chondrosarcoma is notably resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Therefore, the mainstay of definitive treatment is wide surgical resection with negative margins.

Question 3122

Topic: Bone Tumors

An 18-year-old male complains of severe nocturnal thigh pain that is completely relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs show a 1.0 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense reactive sclerosis in the femoral diaphysis. The intense pain is pathogenically caused by the secretion of which substance by the nidus?

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Bone morphogenetic protein-2 (BMP-2)
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)


Explanation

Osteoid osteomas secrete high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) from the nidus. This causes intense local inflammation and nocturnal pain, explaining the dramatic symptomatic relief achieved with NSAIDs.

Question 3123

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man undergoes wide resection of a large, painful cartilaginous tumor of the proximal humerus. Histopathology reveals a conventional grade II chondrosarcoma. Which of the following metabolic gene mutations is most frequently implicated in the pathogenesis of this specific tumor?

. TP53
. IDH1 or IDH2
. GNAS
. EXT1 or EXT2
. RB1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. IDH1 or IDH2


Explanation

Mutations in Isocitrate Dehydrogenase 1 or 2 (IDH1/IDH2) are found in up to 50-60% of central conventional chondrosarcomas. These mutations alter cellular metabolism, leading to the pathologic accumulation of the oncometabolite D-2-hydroxyglutarate.

Question 3124

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for a severe shepherd's crook deformity of the proximal femur and precocious puberty. Radiographs show extensive 'ground-glass' opacities in the affected bone. The pathogenesis of her underlying musculoskeletal condition is directly related to which of the following molecular mechanisms?

. Constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase via a stimulatory G-protein
. Inactivating mutation of the PHEX gene
. Loss of function in the tumor suppressor gene PTEN
. Defective synthesis of Type I collagen
. Abnormal fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) signaling

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase via a stimulatory G-protein


Explanation

The patient has McCune-Albright syndrome, which includes polyostotic fibrous dysplasia. This is caused by an activating post-zygotic somatic mutation in the GNAS gene, leading to constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase and elevated intracellular cAMP.

Question 3125

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 14-year-old boy complains of intense thigh pain that worsens at night and is dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Imaging reveals a 1 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerotic bone in the proximal femur. Which of the following biochemical mediators is secreted in excess by the central nidus?

. Interleukin-1
. Prostaglandin E2
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha
. Vascular endothelial growth factor
. Fibroblast growth factor 23

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2


Explanation

Osteoid osteomas typically produce high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) within the central nidus. This robust production accounts for the profound localized pain that is classically responsive to NSAIDs.

Question 3126

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old man presents with a slow-growing, painful mass near his knee joint. MRI shows a well-circumscribed, lobulated mass in the popliteal fossa with calcifications. Biopsy reveals a biphasic proliferation of spindle cells and epithelial cells. Which chromosomal translocation is highly diagnostic for this tumor?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SS18-SSX fusion gene. The other translocations represent Ewing sarcoma t(11;22), extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma t(9;22), myxoid liposarcoma t(12;16), and alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma t(2;13).

Question 3127

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

An 8-year-old girl is found to have an expansile, eccentric lytic lesion in the metaphysis of her distal radius. MRI demonstrates multiple fluid-fluid levels within the lesion. Genetic analysis of the primary lesion would most likely reveal a translocation leading to the upregulation of which of the following genes?

. USP6
. GNAS
. RUNX2
. COL1A1
. MDM2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are neoplastic and driven by translocations resulting in the upregulation of the USP6 gene. This specific genetic marker distinguishes primary ABCs from secondary ABC-like changes found in other bone tumors.

Question 3128

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

A 62-year-old man with a history of nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma presents with a solitary lytic metastasis in the proximal femur causing an impending pathologic fracture. Prior to prophylactic internal stabilization, which adjunctive intervention is most critical to minimize perioperative surgical morbidity?

. Neoadjuvant systemic chemotherapy
. Preoperative external beam radiation therapy
. Preoperative selective arterial embolization
. Administration of high-dose systemic corticosteroids
. Intravenous bisphosphonates immediately prior to incision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative selective arterial embolization


Explanation

Metastases from renal cell carcinoma and thyroid carcinoma are notoriously hypervascular. Preoperative selective arterial embolization 24-48 hours before surgical stabilization is strongly recommended to minimize massive, potentially life-threatening intraoperative blood loss.

Question 3129

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing mass on the anterior aspect of her tibia. Radiographs show a distinct eccentric 'soap bubble' lytic lesion in the anterior tibial diaphysis. Histology reveals biphasic nests of epithelial cells surrounded by a bland fibrous stroma. Which immunohistochemical marker will predictably be strongly positive in the epithelial component?

. CD99
. S-100
. Cytokeratin
. Vimentin
. Desmin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cytokeratin


Explanation

Adamantinoma is a rare, low-grade malignant bone tumor that classically presents in the anterior tibial diaphysis. It is characterized by its biphasic histology, containing epithelial cells that stain strongly positive for cytokeratin, distinguishing it from fibrous dysplasia or osteofibrous dysplasia.

Question 3130

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with chronic knee pain. Radiographs reveal a 2 cm eccentric, purely lytic lesion located entirely within the distal femoral epiphysis. Biopsy demonstrates mononuclear cells and areas of chondroid matrix with fine, 'chicken-wire' calcifications. Which of the following genetic mutations is most strongly associated with this lesion?

. H3F3A
. H3F3B
. GNAS
. USP6
. EXT1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. H3F3B


Explanation

This presentation is classic for a chondroblastoma, an epiphyseal lesion typically seen in growing children. It is characterized by H3F3B mutations, whereas H3F3A mutations are characteristically seen in Giant Cell Tumor of bone.

Question 3131

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old woman presents with progressive right hip pain and a noticeable limp. Radiographs demonstrate a 'shepherd's crook' deformity of the proximal femur with a hazy, ground-glass matrix in the medullary canal. Which of the following underlying molecular defects is responsible for this condition?

. Activating mutation in the Gs-alpha protein (GNAS)
. Inactivating mutation in the EXT1 gene
. Translocation involving the USP6 gene
. Amplification of the MDM2 gene
. Mutation in the IDH1 gene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Activating mutation in the Gs-alpha protein (GNAS)


Explanation

Fibrous dysplasia is caused by a post-zygotic, activating mutation in the GNAS gene. This leads to constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP, resulting in abnormal proliferation of fibrous tissue in bone.

Question 3132

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old man presents with a destructive lytic lesion in his humeral diaphysis. Biopsy reveals nests of clear cells with abundant cytoplasm. He has a known history of radical nephrectomy. What is the most appropriate next step prior to prophylactic surgical fixation of the humerus?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
. Neoadjuvant radiation therapy
. Pre-operative angiographic embolization
. Administration of Denosumab
. Immediate forequarter amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pre-operative angiographic embolization


Explanation

Metastatic renal cell carcinoma and thyroid carcinoma lesions are notoriously hypervascular. Pre-operative angiographic embolization is highly recommended 24-48 hours before surgical stabilization to minimize massive intraoperative blood loss.

Question 3133

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old boy presents with a rapidly expanding, painful lytic lesion in the proximal humerus. MRI demonstrates a multiloculated lesion with prominent fluid-fluid levels. Biopsy confirms a primary aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Which genetic abnormality is the primary driver of this true neoplasm?

. EWSR1-FLI1 translocation
. USP6 gene rearrangement
. t(X;18) translocation
. MDM2 amplification
. IDH1 mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6 gene rearrangement


Explanation

Primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts are now recognized as true neoplasms driven by USP6 gene rearrangements, most commonly t(16;17). Secondary ABCs, which lack this mutation, can arise in conjunction with other tumors like giant cell tumors or chondroblastomas.

Question 3134

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old man presents with a slowly enlarging, painful mass near his knee joint. Radiographs show a soft tissue mass with stippled calcifications. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic tumor with both spindle cells and epithelial-like cells. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is characteristic of this malignancy?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)
. t(9;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. Despite its name, it rarely arises directly from the synovium, though it commonly presents near large joints and frequently exhibits calcifications on imaging.

Question 3135

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old man presents with severe back pain, anemia, and hypercalcemia. Radiographs show multiple punched-out lytic skull lesions. A Technetium-99m bone scan is performed but fails to demonstrate increased uptake in the areas of destruction. What is the primary reason for this false-negative bone scan?

. Lack of an osteoblastic response
. Extensive tumor necrosis
. Excessive lesional sclerosis
. Inadequate radiotracer dose administration
. Predominance of extramedullary disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lack of an osteoblastic response


Explanation

Multiple myeloma lesions are classically 'cold' on technetium-99m bone scans because the malignant plasma cells secrete factors (like DKK1) that suppress osteoblastic activity. A skeletal survey or whole-body low-dose CT is required for accurate staging.

Question 3136

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old woman presents with a painless mass on the posterior aspect of her distal femur. Radiographs demonstrate a dense, lobulated, broad-based ossifying mass on the cortical surface with a 'string sign' separating part of the tumor from the cortex. There is no medullary involvement. Which genetic alteration is characteristic of this lesion?

. IDH1 mutation
. EXT1 mutation
. MDM2 amplification
. USP6 translocation
. SYT-SSX fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2 amplification


Explanation

Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade surface osteosarcoma classically located on the posterior aspect of the distal femur. It is cytogenetically characterized by supernumerary ring chromosomes containing MDM2 and CDK4 gene amplifications.

Question 3137

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old man presents with deep thigh pain. Radiographs reveal a 6 cm lytic lesion in the proximal femur with 'ring and arc' calcifications and endosteal scalloping. Biopsy confirms a grade II (intermediate) chondrosarcoma. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Definitive radiation therapy alone
. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Wide surgical resection
. Radiofrequency ablation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection


Explanation

Conventional chondrosarcomas are generally highly resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Wide surgical resection with negative margins is the mainstay of treatment for intermediate (grade II) and high-grade (grade III) lesions.

Question 3138

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old man presents with a swelling on his lower leg. Radiographs reveal an eccentric, multilobulated lytic lesion in the anterior diaphyseal cortex of the tibia. Histologic evaluation shows nests of epithelial cells within a benign fibrous stroma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteofibrous dysplasia
. Non-ossifying fibroma
. Adamantinoma
. Ewing sarcoma
. Osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adamantinoma


Explanation

Adamantinoma is a rare, low-grade malignant bone tumor that occurs almost exclusively in the anterior diaphyseal cortex of the tibia. It is unique among primary bone tumors for its biphasic histology, containing epithelial cells that stain positive for cytokeratin.

Question 3139

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis
A 6-year-old girl is evaluated for an anterolateral bowing deformity of the tibia. Physical exam reveals axillary freckling and multiple Lisch nodules. According to the NIH diagnostic criteria for this condition, which of the following additional findings would independently satisfy a diagnostic criterion?
. At least 2 cafe-au-lait macules measuring >5mm
. Optic glioma
. A single discrete neurofibroma
. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas
. A positive family history in a second-degree relative

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Optic glioma


Explanation

The diagnosis of Neurofibromatosis Type 1 requires 2 or more clinical criteria. An optic glioma is one of the major criteria. The criteria require at least 6 café-au-lait spots, at least 2 neurofibromas (or 1 plexiform), and a positive family history must be in a first-degree relative.

Question 3140

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 9-year-old boy presents with mild shoulder pain after throwing a baseball. Radiographs reveal a centrally located, purely lytic lesion in the proximal humeral metaphysis. A small cortical fragment is seen resting at the dependent portion of the radiolucent cavity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Chondroblastoma
. Unicameral bone cyst
. Osteosarcoma
. Eosinophilic granuloma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unicameral bone cyst


Explanation

The 'fallen leaf' or 'fallen fragment' sign on a radiograph represents a piece of fractured cortex resting at the bottom of a fluid-filled cavity. This sign is highly specific for a Unicameral (Simple) Bone Cyst complicated by a pathologic fracture.