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Question 2841

Topic: Bone Tumors
An 8-year-old girl sustains a minor fall and presents with a proximal femur fracture. Radiographs reveal a 'shepherd's crook' deformity of the proximal femur and a diaphyseal lesion with a 'ground-glass' appearance. The patient has a history of precocious puberty and has large, irregular café-au-lait macules on her trunk. What is the underlying pathophysiological mechanism of her bone disease?
. Constitutive activation of the Gs-alpha protein due to a missense mutation
. Deficiency of the enzyme tissue-nonspecific alkaline phosphatase (TNSALP)
. Impaired formation of the osteoclast ruffled border secondary to TCIRG1 mutation
. Defective synthesis of type I collagen due to COL1A1 or COL1A2 mutations
. Upregulation of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Constitutive activation of the Gs-alpha protein due to a missense mutation


Explanation

The patient has McCune-Albright syndrome, a triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty (or other endocrinopathies), and café-au-lait spots with irregular 'coast of Maine' borders. The underlying etiology is a somatic, post-zygotic missense mutation in the GNAS gene, which encodes the alpha subunit of the stimulatory G protein (Gs-alpha). This mutation leads to constitutive activation of adenylate cyclase, increased intracellular cAMP, and subsequent abnormal cellular proliferation and differentiation, resulting in the replacement of normal bone with immature fibrous tissue.

Question 2842

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 25-year-old female presents with a painless mass on the posterior aspect of her distal thigh. Radiographs reveal a dense, extensively ossified mass attached to the posterior cortex of the distal femur via a broad base. Biopsy shows well-formed woven bone trabeculae within a bland fibrous stroma, with minimal cellular atypia. What is the most likely diagnosis and the most appropriate standard of care?

. Periosteal osteosarcoma; neoadjuvant chemotherapy and wide resection
. Osteochondroma; marginal excision
. High-grade surface osteosarcoma; neoadjuvant chemoradiation
. Parosteal osteosarcoma; wide resection alone
. Myositis ossificans; observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parosteal osteosarcoma; wide resection alone


Explanation

Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade surface osteosarcoma that classically presents on the posterior aspect of the distal femur in young adults. Radiographically, it appears as a dense, heavily ossified mass attached to the cortex. Unlike classic intramedullary high-grade osteosarcomas, parosteal osteosarcomas rarely require chemotherapy (unless dedifferentiation is identified). The definitive treatment is wide surgical resection alone.

Question 2843

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with a 3-month history of nocturnal thigh pain and low-grade fever. Radiographs demonstrate a permeative, diaphyseal lytic lesion in the femur with a multilamellated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Core needle biopsy reveals uniform small round blue cells. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most characteristically associated with this patient's diagnosis?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. MDM2 amplification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic, and histologic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation in approximately 85% of cases, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion transcript. t(X;18) is associated with synovial sarcoma, t(12;16) with myxoid liposarcoma, t(2;13) with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma, and MDM2 amplification is seen in atypical lipomatous tumors/well-differentiated liposarcomas and parosteal osteosarcomas.

Question 2844

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man presents with a constant, dull aching pain in his right pelvis that has been progressively worsening over the past 6 months. Radiographs demonstrate a large lytic lesion in the ilium with internal 'ring-and-arc' calcifications and focal cortical breakthrough. Biopsy confirms a grade II (intermediate-grade) chondrosarcoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

. Intralesional curettage and cementing
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Radiation therapy alone
. Preoperative embolization and marginal excision
. Wide surgical resection alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection alone


Explanation

Conventional chondrosarcomas are generally considered highly resistant to both chemotherapy and radiation therapy due to their low vascularity, slow growth, and rich hyaline cartilage matrix. Thus, the absolute mainstay of treatment for intermediate to high-grade chondrosarcomas of the pelvis or extremities is wide surgical excision to achieve negative margins.

Question 2845

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old man presents with intractable lower back pain and fatigue. Radiographs show multiple punched-out lytic lesions in the skull and several vertebral compression fractures. Laboratory tests reveal hypercalcemia and a normocytic anemia. Serum protein electrophoresis shows an M-spike. Which of the following imaging modalities is the most sensitive for assessing the total extent of skeletal involvement in this condition?

. Technetium-99m bone scan
. Plain radiography skeletal survey
. Whole-body low-dose CT or MRI
. Indium-111 leukocyte scan
. Gallium-67 scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Whole-body low-dose CT or MRI


Explanation

The patient has multiple myeloma. Myeloma bone lesions are purely osteolytic, driven by tumor cell activation of osteoclasts and profound suppression of osteoblasts. Because there is little to no reactive bone formation (osteoblastic response), traditional Technetium-99m bone scans are notoriously falsely negative. Whole-body low-dose CT or whole-body MRI are the most sensitive imaging modalities for detecting skeletal lesions in multiple myeloma.

Question 2846

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old man presents with localized right leg pain that is significantly worse at night and dramatically relieved within 30 minutes of taking ibuprofen. Imaging demonstrates a 7-mm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense, reactive sclerotic bone in the anterior cortex of the mid-diaphyseal tibia. If the patient desires definitive treatment but wishes to avoid open surgery, which of the following is considered the standard of care?

. Radiofrequency ablation
. Cryotherapy
. Intralesional injection of methylprednisolone
. High-intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU)
. External beam radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiofrequency ablation


Explanation

The patient's clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. While observation with NSAIDs is an option (as lesions can spontaneously burn out over several years), radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is the definitive, minimally invasive treatment of choice. It has excellent success rates and has largely replaced surgical 'en bloc' or burr-down excision.

Question 2847

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old man presents with a slowly enlarging, relatively painless mass around his left ankle. Radiographs show an eccentric soft tissue mass with stippled calcifications adjacent to, but not involving, the joint space. MRI reveals a heterogeneous mass with a 'triple signal' pattern on T2 sequences. Biopsy confirms a biphasic tumor comprised of epithelial and spindle cell components. Which chromosomal translocation is pathognomonic for this tumor?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(9;22)(q34;q11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic, and histologic presentation describes a synovial sarcoma. Despite its name, synovial sarcoma rarely arises from the actual intra-articular synovium, instead occurring in periarticular soft tissues. It is classically associated with calcifications in about 30% of cases. The pathognomonic chromosomal translocation is t(X;18)(p11;q11), leading to the SYT-SSX fusion protein.

Question 2848

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 12-year-old girl is evaluated for a prominent leg length discrepancy and a limp. She has a documented history of precocious puberty and has several large, irregular café-au-lait spots with jagged borders on her trunk. Radiographs of her proximal femur demonstrate a 'shepherd's crook' deformity with a ground-glass appearance of the medullary canal. A mutation in which of the following genes is the underlying cause of this patient's syndrome?
. EXT1
. NF1
. GNAS1
. FGFR3
. RUNX2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS1


Explanation

This patient has McCune-Albright syndrome, which is characterized by the triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, endocrine abnormalities (most commonly precocious puberty), and café-au-lait macules with 'coast of Maine' (jagged) borders. It is caused by a sporadic, postzygotic activating mutation in the GNAS1 gene. This mutation encodes an abnormal alpha subunit of the stimulatory G protein (Gs), leading to continuous activation of adenylate cyclase and overproduction of intracellular cAMP.

Question 2849

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old woman is referred after an incidental finding of a calcified lesion in her proximal humerus during a routine chest radiograph. Subsequent shoulder MRI shows a 3 cm well-circumscribed, lobulated cartilaginous lesion localized entirely within the medullary canal. There is no endosteal scalloping, cortical breakthrough, periosteal reaction, or soft tissue extension. The patient reports absolutely no pain in her shoulder. What is the most appropriate management?

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Core needle biopsy
. Wide local excision
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
. Observation with serial radiographs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with serial radiographs


Explanation

An asymptomatic, well-circumscribed, calcified cartilaginous lesion in the medullary canal completely lacking aggressive features on MRI (such as deep endosteal scalloping, cortical destruction, or a soft tissue mass) is classic for a benign enchondroma. In the absence of clinical symptoms, the standard of care is conservative observation with serial radiographs, as the risk of malignant transformation into a secondary chondrosarcoma is exceedingly low.

Question 2850

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man presents with a painful mass in his proximal humerus. A radiograph reveals an intralesional, destructive process with stippled, popcorn-like calcifications. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis of a conventional central chondrosarcoma. Which of the following genetic mutations is most commonly associated with this primary bone tumor?

. EXT1
. IDH1
. GNAS
. TP53
. RB1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. IDH1


Explanation

Conventional central chondrosarcomas frequently harbor mutations in the isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (IDH1) or IDH2 genes. EXT1 and EXT2 mutations are characteristic of multiple hereditary exostoses (osteochondromas). GNAS mutations are seen in fibrous dysplasia. TP53 and RB1 mutations are classically associated with osteosarcoma.

Question 2851

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 24-year-old woman presents with a slowly enlarging, painful mass deep within the plantar aspect of her foot. MRI demonstrates a well-circumscribed soft tissue mass near the plantar fascia. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor consisting of epithelial cells forming glandular structures and spindle cells in a fascicular pattern. Which cytogenetic abnormality is diagnostic for this tumor?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)
. t(9;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

The diagnosis is synovial sarcoma, which frequently presents in young adults as a deep soft tissue mass in the extremities (most commonly around the knee or in the foot). Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which fuses the SYT gene on chromosome 18 with one of the SSX genes on the X chromosome. Ewing sarcoma is associated with t(11;22). Myxoid liposarcoma features t(12;16). Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma features t(2;13).

Question 2852

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male presents with a slowly enlarging, painless mass around his left knee. MRI demonstrates a soft tissue mass adjacent to the joint capsule but without intra-articular extension. Biopsy reveals a biphasic pattern consisting of spindle cells and epithelial cells. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most characteristic of this patient's diagnosis?

. t(11;22)
. t(12;16)
. t(X;18)
. t(9;22)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

The patient's clinical and histological findings are classic for synovial sarcoma, which classically occurs in young adults near large joints (especially the knee) but rarely involves the joint space itself. The biphasic subtype features both spindle and epithelial cells. The hallmark cytogenetic abnormality for synovial sarcoma is the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which fuses the SYT gene on chromosome 18 with one of the SSX genes on the X chromosome. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma, t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma, t(9;22) in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma, and t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 2853

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 14-year-old boy presents with pain and swelling over his proximal humerus after minor trauma. Radiographs show an expansile, radiolucent, metaphyseal lesion. MRI demonstrates multiple fluid-fluid levels within the lesion. A core biopsy reveals blood-filled cavernous spaces lacking an endothelial lining. A cytogenetic abnormality in which of the following genes is most likely associated with the pathogenesis of this primary lesion?

. EXT1
. GNAS
. TP53
. USP6
. RB1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic, and histological findings describe an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC). Primary ABCs are now known to be true neoplasms driven by genetic translocations, most commonly involving the USP6 (ubiquitin specific peptidase 6) gene on chromosome 17p13. EXT1 is associated with hereditary multiple exostoses. GNAS mutations are found in fibrous dysplasia. TP53 and RB1 mutations are associated with osteosarcoma.

Question 2854

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with fever, weight loss, and severe mid-thigh pain. Radiographs demonstrate a permeative diaphyseal lesion of the femur with a prominent 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Histology reveals solid sheets of uniform small round blue cells. Immunohistochemistry is strongly positive for CD99. Which of the following fusion gene products is the primary driver of this malignancy?

. SYT-SSX1
. PAX3-FKHR
. TLS-CHOP
. MYC-IGH
. EWS-FLI1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EWS-FLI1


Explanation

This is a classic presentation of Ewing sarcoma, which is a small round blue cell tumor typically found in the diaphysis of long bones in children and adolescents. It commonly presents with systemic symptoms, 'onion-skin' periostitis, and strong CD99 (MIC2) positivity. Over 85% of cases are characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. SYT-SSX1 is seen in synovial sarcoma, PAX3-FKHR in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma, TLS-CHOP in myxoid liposarcoma, and MYC-IGH in Burkitt lymphoma.

Question 2855

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with right knee pain that wakes him at night. Radiographs show a destructive metaphyseal lesion of the distal femur with a sunburst periosteal reaction and Codman's triangle. A biopsy confirms high-grade osteoblastic osteosarcoma. A germline mutation in which of the following tumor suppressor genes would most strongly predispose this patient to both this primary bone tumor and breast cancer later in life?

. RB1
. PTEN
. TP53
. APC
. NF1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TP53


Explanation

The scenario describes a patient with high-grade osteosarcoma and questions the underlying genetics of Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by early-onset multiple primary cancers, predominantly osteosarcoma, breast cancer, brain tumors, leukemia, and soft tissue sarcomas. It is caused by a germline mutation in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene. While RB1 mutations (Retinoblastoma) also predispose to osteosarcoma, they do not have a classic association with breast cancer. PTEN is mutated in Cowden syndrome, APC in familial adenomatous polyposis, and NF1 in neurofibromatosis.

Question 2856

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man presents with a constant, dull ache in his pelvis. Radiographs reveal a large, lytic lesion in the ilium with 'popcorn-like' chondroid calcifications. Biopsy demonstrates hypercellular hyaline cartilage with plump, pleomorphic, and binucleated chondrocytes penetrating host bone trabeculae. Which of the following represents the most appropriate primary treatment modality for the conventional type of this tumor?

. Routine neoadjuvant chemotherapy
. Primary definitive radiation therapy
. Preoperative Denosumab administration
. Wide surgical resection
. Intralesional curettage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection


Explanation

The patient has a conventional chondrosarcoma, indicated by the older age, pelvic location, 'popcorn' calcifications, and histological features of malignant cartilage permeating host bone. Conventional chondrosarcoma is notoriously resistant to both traditional chemotherapy and radiation therapy. The mainstay of treatment and the only reliable modality for achieving a cure in high-grade or pelvic lesions is wide surgical resection with negative margins. Denosumab is used for giant cell tumor of bone, and intralesional curettage is generally reserved for benign lesions or select cases of appendicular atypical cartilaginous tumors (chondrosarcoma grade 1).

Question 2857

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 19-year-old male complains of severe right thigh pain that is significantly worse at night and promptly relieved by NSAIDs. Computed tomography (CT) displays a 1-cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense, sclerotic reactive bone in the femoral diaphysis. The profound pain experienced by this patient is directly mediated by an elevated local concentration of which of the following substances?

. Histamine
. Prostaglandin E2
. Bradykinin
. Substance P
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2


Explanation

The diagnosis is an osteoid osteoma, a benign bone forming tumor characterized by a small radiolucent nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone. The nidus contains an abundant nerve supply and produces high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and Prostaglandin I2. PGE2 acts locally to cause intense pain, which is classically worse at night. The relief of pain with NSAIDs (which inhibit cyclooxygenase and block prostaglandin synthesis) is a hallmark of this condition.

Question 2858

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old male presents with a deep, painless, intramuscular mass in his thigh. MRI shows a multi-lobulated mass that is hyperintense on T2-weighted images and contains small nodules of macroscopic fat. Histology reveals primitive non-lipogenic mesenchymal cells, an arborizing 'chicken-wire' capillary network, and signet-ring lipoblasts within a prominent myxoid stroma. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is classically associated with this diagnosis?

. t(12;16)
. t(X;18)
. t(11;22)
. t(9;22)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;16)


Explanation

This patient has a myxoid liposarcoma. It typically occurs in the deep soft tissues of the extremities (especially the thigh) in young to middle-aged adults. The histological triad consists of a myxoid matrix, a delicate plexiform ('chicken-wire') capillary vascular network, and differentiating lipoblasts. Over 90% of myxoid liposarcomas contain the t(12;16)(q13;p11) translocation, which creates the FUS-DDIT3 (formerly TLS-CHOP) fusion gene. t(X;18) is synovial sarcoma, t(11;22) is Ewing sarcoma, t(9;22) is extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma, and t(2;13) is alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 2859

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old male presents with a one-year history of chronic, mild right shoulder pain. Radiographs demonstrate a lytic lesion located purely in the epiphysis of the proximal humerus, with a fine sclerotic margin and central calcification. Histology shows sheets of cells with abundant clear cytoplasm and distinct cell membranes, interspersed with areas of hyaline cartilage and reactive trabeculae of woven bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Chondroblastoma
. Enchondroma
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Giant cell tumor of bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clear cell chondrosarcoma


Explanation

The diagnosis is clear cell chondrosarcoma. This is a rare, low-grade malignant cartilage tumor that distinctively occurs in the epiphysis of long bones (most commonly the proximal humerus or femur) in adults (typically 30-50 years old). Histologically, it is defined by cells with abundant clear cytoplasm (due to glycogen). While chondroblastoma is also an epiphyseal cartilaginous lesion, it almost exclusively occurs in skeletally immature patients (before epiphyseal closure) and features 'chicken-wire' calcifications and 'coffee bean' nuclei, not clear cells. Giant cell tumor is epiphyseal but does not have a cartilaginous matrix.

Question 2860

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with a painful mass in his distal femur. Radiographs reveal a permeative, destructive diaphyseal lesion with a lamellated periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals sheets of uniform small blue round cells with scant cytoplasm. Cytogenetic analysis is pending. What is the most common translocation associated with this diagnosis, and what fusion protein does it create?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12) producing EWS-FLI1
. t(X;18)(p11;q11) producing SYT-SSX
. t(12;16)(q13;p11) producing FUS-DDIT3
. t(2;13)(q35;q14) producing PAX3-FOXO1
. t(9;22)(q34;q11) producing BCR-ABL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12) producing EWS-FLI1


Explanation

The clinical picture and biopsy (permeative diaphyseal lesion, onion-skin periosteal reaction, 'small blue round cells' in a 15-year-old) strongly suggest Ewing sarcoma. The hallmark translocation, present in over 85% of cases, is t(11;22)(q24;q12). This fuses the EWSR1 gene on chromosome 22 with the FLI1 gene on chromosome 11, creating the chimeric EWS-FLI1 transcription factor. Option B is characteristic of Synovial Sarcoma. Option C is associated with Myxoid Liposarcoma. Option D is seen in Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma. Option E is the Philadelphia chromosome seen in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia.