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Question 2781

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man complains of vague lower back pain and constipation for the past 6 months. A digital rectal examination reveals a firm presacral mass. MRI shows a large, destructive midline lesion of the sacrum. Biopsy demonstrates lobules of large, vacuolated cells with abundant mucinous cytoplasm (physaliferous cells) set in a myxoid stroma. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Wide en bloc excision
. Marginal excision with postoperative radiotherapy
. Radiofrequency ablation
. Chemotherapy followed by intralesional curettage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide en bloc excision


Explanation

The clinical scenario and the presence of physaliferous cells are pathognomonic for chordoma, a low-grade but locally aggressive malignant tumor arising from notochordal remnants. Chordomas are notorious for high local recurrence rates if not completely excised and are largely resistant to conventional chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Therefore, wide en bloc excision is the treatment of choice to achieve negative margins and maximize disease-free survival.

Question 2782

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 20-year-old man presents with an aching left thigh pain that is notably worse at night and dramatically relieved by taking ibuprofen. Radiographs show a small radiolucent nidus (< 1.5 cm) surrounded by dense reactive sclerosis in the femoral diaphysis. Which of the following inflammatory mediators is produced in high levels by this lesion and mediates the characteristic pain?
. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)
. Matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP-9)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)


Explanation

The classic presentation of an osteoid osteoma is night pain relieved by NSAIDs or salicylates. The nidus contains osteoblasts that produce high concentrations of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) enzymes. The localized high concentration of PGE2 causes nerve irritation and the intense, characteristic nocturnal pain.

Question 2783

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 9-year-old girl is evaluated for precocious puberty and several large café-au-lait spots with irregular 'coast of Maine' borders on her trunk. Radiographs of her femur demonstrate an expansile medullary lesion with a ground-glass appearance and severe varus bowing. A mutation in which of the following genes is most likely responsible for her condition?
. EXT1
. FGFR3
. GNAS1
. COL1A1
. NF1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS1


Explanation

The triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (ground-glass bone lesions with 'shepherd's crook' bowing deformity), precocious puberty (or other endocrinopathies), and café-au-lait macules with irregular borders ('coast of Maine') defines McCune-Albright syndrome. It is caused by a postzygotic, activating somatic mutation in the GNAS1 gene, which encodes the alpha subunit of the Gs protein, leading to continuous cAMP production.

Question 2784

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic hip pain. Radiographs demonstrate an expansile, lytic lesion in the proximal femoral epiphysis with central calcifications. The physeal plates are closed. Biopsy reveals sheets of large cells with abundant clear cytoplasm and distinct cell membranes, interspersed with trabeculae of woven bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Chondroblastoma
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Conventional osteosarcoma
. Giant cell tumor
. Chondromyxoid fibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clear cell chondrosarcoma


Explanation

Clear cell chondrosarcoma is a rare, low-grade malignant cartilage tumor that classically occurs in the epiphysis of long bones in adults (most commonly the proximal femur or humerus). Histologically, it is characterized by large cells with abundant clear cytoplasm. While chondroblastoma also occurs in the epiphysis, it typically presents in skeletally immature patients (open physes) and lacks the characteristic clear cells.

Question 2785

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy presents with a painful, enlarging mass in the diaphysis of the femur. Radiographs show a permeative lytic lesion with an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals sheets of uniform small round blue cells that strongly express CD99 on immunohistochemistry. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most characteristic of this patient's diagnosis?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The clinical presentation, radiographic findings, and histology (CD99 positive small round blue cells) are classic for Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is driven by the EWSR1-FLI1 fusion protein, which results from the characteristic t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma, t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma, and t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 2786

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 32-year-old woman presents with a large, expansile lytic epiphyseal lesion in her distal femur. Biopsy confirms a giant cell tumor of bone. Due to the extensive size and proximity to the articular surface, the surgeon decides to use neoadjuvant medical therapy to consolidate the tumor and facilitate joint-salvage surgery. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the most appropriate pharmacological agent?

. Inhibition of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Monoclonal antibody targeting the RANK ligand (RANKL)
. Tyrosine kinase inhibition of the c-KIT receptor
. Alkylating agent causing DNA cross-linking
. Monoclonal antibody targeting the HER2 receptor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Monoclonal antibody targeting the RANK ligand (RANKL)


Explanation

Denosumab is the treatment of choice for giant cell tumors of bone (GCTB) when neoadjuvant downstaging is required. It is a fully human monoclonal antibody that binds to RANKL, preventing it from activating RANK on the surface of osteoclast-like giant cells. This halts bone resorption, allows for tumor ossification, and facilitates surgical curettage.

Question 2787

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man complains of severe, generalized bone pain and proximal muscle weakness. Laboratory studies reveal severe hypophosphatemia, normal serum calcium, normal parathyroid hormone (PTH), and low 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D levels. A small soft-tissue mass is discovered on the plantar aspect of his foot. Complete resection of this mass is most likely to reverse his symptoms by eliminating the abnormal paraneoplastic production of which of the following substances?

. Parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)
. Fibroblast growth factor-23 (FGF-23)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
. Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibroblast growth factor-23 (FGF-23)


Explanation

The patient's presentation is diagnostic of tumor-induced osteomalacia (TIO), a rare paraneoplastic syndrome typically caused by a phosphaturic mesenchymal tumor (PMT). These tumors secrete fibroblast growth factor-23 (FGF-23), which impairs renal tubular phosphate reabsorption and downregulates 1-alpha-hydroxylase, leading to hypophosphatemia and decreased active vitamin D. Resection of the tumor provides a definitive cure.

Question 2788

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old man presents with chronic, dull anterior leg pain. Radiographs reveal a multiloculated, expansile, eccentric lytic lesion involving the anterior cortex of the tibial diaphysis. Histological examination shows islands of epithelial cells interspersed within a fibrous stroma. Immunohistochemistry is strongly positive for cytokeratin. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this lesion?

. Intralesional curettage, adjuvant burring, and bone grafting
. Wide surgical resection with negative margins
. Primary radiation therapy
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by curettage
. Percutaneous radiofrequency ablation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection with negative margins


Explanation

The clinical presentation, anterior tibial diaphysis location, and biphasic histology (fibrous stroma with cytokeratin-positive epithelial cells) are pathognomonic for adamantinoma. Adamantinoma is a low-grade malignant bone tumor with a potential for local recurrence and pulmonary metastasis. Intralesional treatments have an unacceptably high recurrence rate; therefore, the standard of care is wide surgical resection with negative margins.

Question 2789

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 62-year-old man presents with a destructive lytic bone lesion in his proximal humerus. Further workup reveals a primary renal mass consistent with clear cell renal carcinoma. He is scheduled for wide excision and endoprosthetic reconstruction of the humerus. To minimize severe intraoperative complications, which of the following interventions should be strongly considered 24 to 48 hours prior to the orthopedic surgery?

. Administration of high-dose systemic bisphosphonates
. Initiation of neoadjuvant tyrosine kinase inhibitors
. Preoperative external beam radiation therapy
. Preoperative selective arterial embolization of the lesion
. Prophylactic placement of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative selective arterial embolization of the lesion


Explanation

Bone metastases from renal cell carcinoma and thyroid carcinoma are characteristically hypervascular. Surgical intervention can result in massive, life-threatening intraoperative hemorrhage. Preoperative selective arterial embolization 24 to 48 hours before the procedure is highly recommended to devascularize the tumor and significantly reduce blood loss.

Question 2790

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
According to the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) staging system for soft tissue sarcomas of the extremities, which of the following tumor characteristics is considered the most critical prognostic factor and the primary determinant of tumor stage?
. Tumor size in centimeters
. Depth of the tumor relative to the investing fascia
. Histologic grade of the tumor
. Regional lymph node status
. Anatomical proximity to major neurovascular bundles

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Histologic grade of the tumor


Explanation

In the AJCC staging system for soft tissue sarcomas, the histologic grade is the most important prognostic factor. It strongly predicts the risk of distant metastasis and overall survival. The staging system heavily relies on grade to differentiate stage I (low-grade) from stages II and III (high-grade) tumors, prior to the presence of metastasis.

Question 2791

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old male presents with severe right thigh pain that is distinctly worse at night and dramatically relieved by over-the-counter ibuprofen. Radiographs reveal localized cortical thickening in the proximal femoral diaphysis with a central 7-mm radiolucent nidus. The dramatic pain relief provided by NSAIDs in this condition is directly mediated by the inhibition of which substance produced by the nidus?

. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)
. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Substance P
. Osteoprotegerin (OPG)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)


Explanation

The patient has an osteoid osteoma, characterized by a radiolucent nidus less than 1.5 cm and surrounding reactive sclerosis. The nidus contains osteoblasts that produce high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), which directly mediates the intense nocturnal pain. NSAIDs provide dramatic relief by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX), thereby halting PGE2 synthesis.

Question 2792

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with right knee pain of three months duration. Radiographs demonstrate a well-circumscribed, 2-cm lytic lesion with a thin sclerotic margin located entirely within the epiphysis of the distal femur. Fine stippled calcifications are noted internally. Histopathology reveals mononuclear cells with longitudinal nuclear grooves ('coffee bean' nuclei), scattered osteoclast-like giant cells, and areas of 'chicken-wire' calcification. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Giant cell tumor of bone
. Chondroblastoma
. Enchondroma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondroblastoma


Explanation

Chondroblastoma is a rare, benign, cartilage-producing bone tumor that almost exclusively occurs in the epiphysis or apophysis of long bones in skeletally immature patients. The histologic hallmarks are mononuclear chondroblasts with 'coffee bean' nuclei, multinucleated giant cells, and a pericellular 'chicken-wire' calcification pattern.

Question 2793

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old man presents with a painless, deep, 10-cm soft-tissue mass in his posterior thigh. MRI shows a well-defined intramuscular mass that is markedly hyperintense on T2-weighted sequences. Core needle biopsy confirms myxoid liposarcoma. Compared to other high-grade soft tissue sarcomas, this specific subtype is uniquely characterized by which of the following clinical behaviors?

. High intrinsic resistance to external beam radiation therapy
. A strong propensity to metastasize to extrapulmonary sites such as bone
. A virtually 100% rate of regional lymph node involvement
. Malignant transformation from a pre-existing benign subcutaneous lipoma
. An aggressive local infiltrative pattern crossing major joint spaces

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A strong propensity to metastasize to extrapulmonary sites such as bone


Explanation

Myxoid liposarcoma exhibits a unique metastatic pattern compared to most other soft tissue sarcomas. While typical sarcomas metastasize primarily to the lungs, myxoid liposarcoma has a strong propensity for extrapulmonary metastasis, particularly to bone (most commonly the spine), and other soft tissue sites. It is also notably highly radiosensitive, unlike option A.

Question 2794

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 68-year-old woman presents with worsening intractable back pain and generalized fatigue. Investigations reveal normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and an elevated monoclonal M-protein spike on serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP). Suspecting multiple myeloma, what is the most sensitive and currently recommended whole-body imaging modality to assess the extent of skeletal osteolytic lesions in this patient?
. Technetium-99m methylene diphosphonate (Tc-99m MDP) bone scan
. Whole-body low-dose computed tomography (WBLDCT)
. Conventional full-body skeletal plain radiograph survey
. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Whole-body low-dose computed tomography (WBLDCT)


Explanation

According to the International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG), Whole-Body Low-Dose CT (WBLDCT) is now the recommended first-line imaging modality for assessing skeletal involvement in multiple myeloma. It is far more sensitive than conventional skeletal surveys for detecting small osteolytic lesions. Technetium-99m bone scans are notoriously poor for myeloma because the lesions are purely osteoclastic/lytic and lack the osteoblastic activity required for radiotracer uptake.

Question 2795

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy presents with a painful mass in his left mid-thigh. Radiographs demonstrate a diaphyseal permeative lytic lesion of the femur with an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. Core needle biopsy reveals sheets of small, round, blue cells that stain positive for CD99. Which of the following is the most common cytogenetic abnormality associated with this condition?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic, and histologic findings describe Ewing sarcoma. The most common cytogenetic abnormality associated with Ewing sarcoma is t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein (found in ~85% of cases). The t(9;22) translocation is seen in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma; t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma; t(X;18) in synovial sarcoma; and t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 2796

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old man presents with a slow-growing, painless mass deep in the plantar aspect of his left foot. Core needle biopsy demonstrates a biphasic histologic pattern consisting of both uniform spindle cells and epithelial cells forming glandular structures.

Which of the following translocations is classically diagnostic for this soft-tissue tumor?

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)


Explanation

The clinical presentation (young adult, foot/ankle mass) and biphasic histology (spindle and epithelial elements) are classic for synovial sarcoma. The pathognomonic cytogenetic abnormality is the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, leading to the SYT-SSX fusion gene. This translocation is found in >90% of synovial sarcomas.

Question 2797

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with a conventional high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma of the proximal tibia. She undergoes 10 weeks of neoadjuvant chemotherapy, followed by a wide surgical resection and endoprosthetic reconstruction. Assuming no metastases were present at diagnosis, what is the single most important prognostic factor for her long-term survival?
. The anatomical location of the primary tumor
. The specific combination of chemotherapeutic agents utilized
. The initial tumor volume at presentation
. The percentage of tumor necrosis observed in the resected specimen
. The absolute margin distance measured by the pathologist

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The percentage of tumor necrosis observed in the resected specimen


Explanation

In patients with localized high-grade osteosarcoma, the histologic response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy (the percentage of tumor necrosis in the resected specimen) is the most significant predictor of overall survival. A 'good response' is classically defined as 90% or greater tumor necrosis (Huvos Grade III or IV) and correlates with a significantly higher survival rate.

Question 2798

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 19-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of a dull, aching pain in his right proximal femur that is notably worse at night and dramatically relieved by taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. CT imaging reveals a 7-mm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense, reactive sclerosis. Histologic examination of the central nidus would most likely reveal which of the following?

. A cartilaginous cap with underlying orderly endochondral ossification
. Malignant spindle cells producing delicate, lacelike osteoid
. Intersecting trabeculae of woven bone lined by prominent, benign osteoblasts within a highly vascular stroma
. Mononuclear stromal cells uniformly interspersed with multinucleated giant cells
. Lobules of hypocellular hyaline cartilage with mild nuclear atypia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intersecting trabeculae of woven bone lined by prominent, benign osteoblasts within a highly vascular stroma


Explanation

The clinical history (night pain relieved by NSAIDs) and radiographic appearance (small radiolucent nidus with reactive sclerosis) are classic for an osteoid osteoma. Histologically, the nidus is composed of an interlacing network of woven bone trabeculae. These trabeculae are lined by a single layer of prominent, active, benign-appearing osteoblasts, all set within a highly vascularized, loose connective tissue stroma.

Question 2799

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy presents with an enlarging, painful mass over his right thigh. Radiographs demonstrate a large, ill-defined, destructive diaphyseal lesion of the femur with a prominent 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Core needle biopsy reveals sheets of small, uniform, round blue cells. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most likely present in this tumor?

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic, and histologic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. The signature translocation for Ewing sarcoma is t(11;22)(q24;q12), which fuses the EWSR1 gene on chromosome 22 with the FLI1 gene on chromosome 11, creating a fusion transcription factor. This is seen in approximately 85% of cases. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma. t(9;22) is associated with extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma. t(2;13) is characteristic of alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. t(12;16) is associated with myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 2800

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old man presents with a slowly enlarging, painful mass deep within his plantar foot. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates a well-circumscribed, multilobulated mass adjacent to the plantar fascia. Core needle biopsy demonstrates a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and spindle cell components. Which of the following is true regarding this specific soft tissue sarcoma?

. It arises directly from the synovial lining of the adjacent joints
. Lymph node metastasis is extremely rare and sentinel node biopsy is never indicated
. It is characterized by the t(X;18) translocation resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion
. The mainstay of treatment is primary radiation therapy without surgery
. It is highly resistant to systemic chemotherapy compared to other sarcomas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is characterized by the t(X;18) translocation resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion


Explanation

The clinical and histologic description indicates a synovial sarcoma. Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the specific chromosomal translocation t(X;18)(p11;q11), which results in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. Despite its historical name, synovial sarcoma rarely arises from the true articular synovium; it typically occurs near joints in tendons, bursae, or joint capsules. Synovial sarcoma is notable for having a higher propensity for lymph node metastasis (along with rhabdomyosarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, and angiosarcoma) and is considered relatively chemosensitive compared to other adult soft tissue sarcomas. Treatment involves wide surgical resection, often combined with radiation.