This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2741
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
What is the most significant prognostic factor for overall survival in a patient with localized, high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma of the distal femur following neoadjuvant chemotherapy and surgical resection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Histologic tumor necrosis greater than 90% in the resected specimen
Explanation
The most significant prognostic factor for survival in patients with high-grade osteosarcoma is the degree of histologic tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy. A necrosis rate of >90% (good responder) is strongly correlated with improved disease-free and overall survival rates.
Question 2742
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 25-year-old male presents with a slowly growing, painful mass deep in the thigh. MRI shows a well-circumscribed heterogeneous soft tissue mass adjacent to the femur but not invading the bone. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and spindle cell components. Which of the following genetic translocations is most characteristic of this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(X;18)
Explanation
The clinical presentation and biphasic histology (epithelial and spindle cells) are classic for synovial sarcoma. Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which results in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. This is found in over 90% of cases.
Question 2743
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 60-year-old man presents with progressive, deep aching pain in his right pelvis. Radiographs show a destructive lytic lesion with 'ring and arc' calcifications in the ilium. Biopsy reveals a grade II chondrosarcoma. What is the most appropriate definitive management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Wide surgical resection alone
Explanation
Chondrosarcoma (grade II and III) is managed primarily with wide surgical resection. These tumors are generally resistant to both conventional chemotherapy and radiation therapy due to their poor vascularity and slow growth rate, making surgical excision with negative margins the only reliable curative option.
Question 2744
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old boy presents with pain and swelling in the midshaft of his tibia. Radiographs demonstrate a permeative, diaphyseal lytic lesion with an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. Histopathology reveals sheets of small round blue cells. Immunohistochemistry is strongly positive for CD99. What is the most appropriate initial treatment sequence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by local control (surgery or radiation)
Explanation
The clinical, radiographic, and histological findings describe Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is a systemic disease at presentation, even if metastases are not clinically evident. The standard of care is systemic neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by local control (which may be wide surgical resection or radiation, depending on the location and resectability) and subsequent adjuvant chemotherapy.
Question 2745
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 15-year-old boy reports severe, throbbing right thigh pain that is worse at night and completely relieved by ibuprofen. A CT scan shows a 7-mm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerotic bone in the femoral diaphysis. What is the primary mediator responsible for the severe pain associated with this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
Explanation
The presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. The severe, nocturnal pain that is characteristically relieved by NSAIDs is caused by the high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) produced by the nidus, which contains high concentrations of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2).
Question 2746
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 22-year-old male with known multiple hereditary exostoses (MHE) presents with a rapidly enlarging, painful mass over the posterior aspect of his distal femur. An MRI shows an osteochondroma with a cartilage cap thickness of 2.5 cm. Which of the following gene mutations is most strongly associated with his underlying condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. EXT1
Explanation
Multiple hereditary exostoses (MHE) is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes, which are responsible for heparan sulfate synthesis. A cartilage cap thicker than 2 cm in a skeletally mature patient is highly suspicious for malignant transformation to secondary chondrosarcoma.
Question 2747
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old female presents with mild knee pain. Radiographs reveal an expansile, eccentric lytic lesion in the proximal tibial metaphysis. MRI demonstrates multiple fluid-fluid levels within the lesion. Biopsy shows blood-filled spaces lacking an endothelial lining. Which genetic rearrangement is considered the primary driver of this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. USP6
Explanation
The lesion is an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Primary ABCs are now known to be true neoplasms driven by translocations involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17p13. This genetic rearrangement leads to upregulation of matrix metalloproteinases, driving the cystic destruction of bone.
Question 2748
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 25-year-old man presents with a slowly enlarging, painless mass on the posterior aspect of his distal thigh. Radiographs demonstrate a dense, heavily ossified mass attached to the posterior cortex of the distal femur with a broad base, and a subtle radiolucent line separating a portion of the tumor from the underlying bone (a 'string sign'). Biopsy reveals a spindle cell proliferation with low-grade atypia and well-formed bone trabeculae. Which of the following is the most characteristic genetic alteration associated with this patient's condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Amplification of MDM2 and CDK4
Explanation
The clinical presentation and radiographic findings (posterior distal femur location, dense ossification, 'string sign') are classic for parosteal osteosarcoma, a low-grade surface osteosarcoma. Cytogenetically, parosteal osteosarcomas are uniquely characterized by supernumerary ring chromosomes that result in the amplification of the MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12q13-15. Translocation t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma, t(X;18) in synovial sarcoma, EXT1 mutations in hereditary multiple exostoses, and GNAS1 in fibrous dysplasia.
Question 2749
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy presents with progressive thigh pain, low-grade fevers, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Radiographs show a permeative diaphyseal lesion in the femur with a multi-layered, 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. Histologic examination of a biopsy specimen reveals sheets of uniform, small, round blue cells that strongly express CD99 on immunohistochemistry. The most common chromosomal translocation associated with this diagnosis results in which of the following fusion genes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. EWS-FLI1
Explanation
The clinical scenario describes Ewing sarcoma, characterized by a permeative diaphyseal lesion, 'onion skin' periosteal reaction, and small round blue cells expressing CD99 (MIC2). Approximately 85% to 90% of Ewing sarcomas are characterized by a t(11;22)(q24;q12) chromosomal translocation, which fuses the EWS gene on chromosome 22 with the FLI1 gene on chromosome 11, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. The SYT-SSX1 fusion is seen in synovial sarcoma. TLS-CHOP is associated with myxoid liposarcoma. PAX3-FKHR is found in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. EWS-ERG is the second most common fusion in Ewing sarcoma (t(21;22)), occurring in about 10% of cases.
Question 2750
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old man complains of worsening right shoulder pain over several months. Radiographs show a 6-cm radiolucent lesion in the proximal humerus with intralesional stippled 'rings and arcs' calcifications and endosteal scalloping involving 80% of the cortical thickness. Biopsy confirms a conventional Grade II chondrosarcoma. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Wide surgical resection alone
Explanation
Conventional chondrosarcomas are notably resistant to both standard chemotherapy and radiation therapy due to their poor vascularity, slow growth rate, and high extracellular matrix content. Therefore, neoadjuvant or adjuvant systemic therapies are generally not indicated for localized disease. Grade II (intermediate-grade) and Grade III (high-grade) conventional chondrosarcomas require wide surgical resection with negative margins to minimize the risk of local recurrence and metastasis. Intralesional curettage with adjuvants is reserved for benign or low-grade cartilaginous lesions (like enchondromas or selected Grade I chondrosarcomas in the appendicular skeleton).
Question 2751
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old girl is evaluated for rapid onset of pain and swelling over the distal fibula. Radiographs show an eccentric, expansile, lytic lesion with cortical thinning. An MRI reveals multiple cysts with fluid-fluid levels. Core biopsy is consistent with an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Primary aneurysmal bone cysts are distinct neoplastic entities frequently characterized by a translocation involving which of the following genes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. USP6
Explanation
Historically considered reactive lesions, primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are now recognized as true neoplasms driven by a specific genetic rearrangement. Up to 70% of primary ABCs demonstrate a translocation involving the USP6 (ubiquitin-specific protease 6) gene on chromosome 17p13, most commonly t(16;17)(q22;p13). This rearrangement leads to USP6 overexpression, driving the neoplastic process. Secondary ABCs (arising in the setting of giant cell tumor, chondroblastoma, or osteoblastoma) do not harbor this USP6 mutation.
Question 2752
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with severe, unrelenting mid-back pain and progressive fatigue. Laboratory studies reveal hypercalcemia and a normocytic anemia. Plain radiographs demonstrate multiple sharply demarcated, 'punched-out' lytic lesions throughout the calvarium and thoracolumbar spine. Which of the following diagnostic findings is most specific for confirming the primary underlying etiology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Monoclonal spike on serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP)
Explanation
The patient's presentation of bone pain, fatigue, hypercalcemia, anemia, and 'punched-out' lytic lesions (without a sclerotic rim) is classic for multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a malignant proliferation of plasma cells. The diagnosis is strongly supported and often confirmed by demonstrating a monoclonal paraprotein (M-protein) via serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) or urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP), alongside bone marrow biopsy showing clonal plasma cells. Elevated alkaline phosphatase and PSA would be more indicative of metastatic prostate cancer, which typically produces osteoblastic (sclerotic) rather than purely lytic 'punched-out' lesions.
Question 2753
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An 8-year-old boy presents with localized severe back pain. Plain radiographs of the thoracic spine reveal complete collapse of the T8 vertebral body (vertebra plana) with relative preservation of the adjacent intervertebral disc spaces. If a biopsy of the lesion were performed, immunohistochemical staining would most likely be positive for which of the following pairs of markers?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. S-100 and CD1a
Explanation
Vertebra plana (uniform collapse of a single vertebral body) in a child is highly characteristic of Eosinophilic Granuloma, the localized form of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH). The pathognomonic cells in LCH are Langerhans cells, which are characterized microscopically by folded, 'coffee-bean' shaped nuclei. On immunohistochemistry, these cells consistently stain positive for S-100, CD1a, and Langerin (CD207). Electron microscopy may reveal Birbeck granules (tennis-racket shaped cytoplasmic organelles). CD99 is positive in Ewing sarcoma. Cytokeratin/EMA are markers for carcinomas and some sarcomas (e.g., synovial sarcoma). SMA/desmin mark muscle differentiation. CD34/Factor VIII mark vascular lesions.
Question 2754
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 25-year-old woman is evaluated for a limp and dull aching pain in her right hip. She has a history of precocious puberty and notes multiple hyperpigmented macules with irregular borders on her torso. Radiographs of the proximal right femur show an expansile, medullary, ground-glass lesion with a 'shepherd's crook' deformity. The underlying genetic mutation responsible for this patient's condition results in which of the following cellular derangements?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Constitutive activation of the Gs-alpha protein
Explanation
The patient has McCune-Albright syndrome, which is characterized by the triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots with irregular 'coast of Maine' borders, and endocrine abnormalities (most commonly precocious puberty). The underlying pathogenesis is a post-zygotic somatic missense mutation in the GNAS1 gene. This mutation causes a loss of GTPase activity, leading to the constitutive activation of the Gs-alpha protein. This results in the overproduction of intracellular cyclic AMP (cAMP), which disrupts normal osteoblast differentiation and leads to the formation of immature, woven bone (fibrous dysplasia).
Question 2755
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 30-year-old man notes a slowly growing, deeply seated, painful mass on the plantar aspect of his foot that he first noticed over a year ago. MRI reveals a 4-cm soft-tissue mass with multi-lobular, heterogeneous signal adjacent to the plantar fascia. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor consisting of both epithelial-like gland structures and a spindle cell stroma. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is pathognomonic for this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
Explanation
The clinical presentation (a slow-growing, painful mass in the foot/ankle of a young adult) and histology (biphasic pattern of epithelial and spindle cells) are highly characteristic of Synovial Sarcoma. Despite its name, it rarely arises within a joint space but typically occurs in periarticular soft tissues. Synovial sarcoma is cytogenetically defined by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, resulting in the fusion of the SYT gene on chromosome 18 with one of the SSX genes (SSX1, SSX2, or SSX4) on the X chromosome. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma; t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma; t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; and t(9;22) in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma.
Question 2756
Topic: Bone Tumors
An 18-year-old man complains of persistent mid-back pain that is worse at night. He reports that the pain is only partially relieved by ibuprofen. A CT scan of the thoracic spine demonstrates a well-circumscribed, 2.8-cm radiolucent nidus in the posterior elements of T12, surrounded by moderate reactive sclerosis. Based on the size and clinical characteristics of the lesion, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoblastoma
Explanation
Osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma are histologically identical benign bone-forming tumors. The primary distinction between the two is based on size and clinical behavior. Osteoblastomas are defined by a nidus that is larger than 1.5 to 2.0 cm (typically >2 cm). Clinically, osteoblastomas have a predilection for the posterior elements of the spine (similar to osteoid osteomas) but tend to be progressively enlarging and cause pain that is less consistently relieved by NSAIDs compared to the classic presentation of osteoid osteoma. Given the 2.8-cm nidus size, the correct diagnosis is osteoblastoma.
Question 2757
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old boy presents with a painful, enlarging mass about the right knee. Imaging reveals a mixed lytic and sclerotic lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis with an aggressive periosteal reaction. Biopsy confirms high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma. Which of the following genetic alterations is most frequently associated with the pathogenesis of this disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Mutation in the p53 tumor suppressor gene
Explanation
High-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma is commonly associated with mutations in tumor suppressor genes, particularly p53 (as seen in Li-Fraumeni syndrome) and Rb (retinoblastoma gene). The t(11;22) translocation is characteristic of Ewing sarcoma. MDM2 amplification is a hallmark of low-grade parosteal osteosarcoma and atypical lipomatous tumors. IDH1 mutations are found in enchondromas and central chondrosarcomas. USP6 translocations are associated with aneurysmal bone cysts.
Question 2758
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old boy presents with fever, weight loss, and a painful mass in the diaphysis of the left femur. Radiographs show a permeative lytic lesion with an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A biopsy is performed. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers or genetic findings is most specific to confirm the likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(11;22) (q24;q12)
Explanation
The clinical presentation (mimicking osteomyelitis with systemic symptoms) and radiographic findings (permeative diaphyseal lesion with lamellated periosteal reaction) are classic for Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma. SATB2 is an osteoblastic marker used to identify osteosarcoma. MUC4 is a marker for low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma.
Question 2759
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old man undergoes curettage and bone grafting for an expansile lytic lesion in the proximal phalanx of his ring finger, which has been growing slowly. Histology shows a well-circumscribed cartilaginous tumor with mild cellular atypia. This tumor is most commonly associated with somatic mutations in which of the following genes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. IDH1
Explanation
The lesion described is an enchondroma, the most common primary bone tumor of the hand. Somatic mutations in the isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 and 2 (IDH1 and IDH2) genes are frequently found in sporadic enchondromas and central chondrosarcomas. GNAS is mutated in fibrous dysplasia. EXT1 and EXT2 are mutated in multiple hereditary exostoses (osteochondromas). SQSTM1 is mutated in Paget's disease of bone, and SH3BP2 is mutated in cherubism.
Question 2760
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 20-year-old man presents with deep, aching night pain in his thigh that is dramatically relieved by oral ibuprofen. Radiographs reveal a small radiolucent nidus (<1.5 cm) surrounded by dense reactive sclerosis in the femoral diaphysis. The profound pain relief provided by NSAIDs is primarily due to the lesion's high local production of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
Explanation
Osteoid osteoma is a benign bone-forming tumor characterized by a central nidus that secretes exceptionally high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) enzymes. This high concentration of PGE2 causes profound local vasodilation and nerve ending sensitization, resulting in severe night pain. NSAIDs provide dramatic relief by inhibiting COX enzymes and subsequent prostaglandin synthesis.
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