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Question 2661

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with sudden shoulder pain after throwing a baseball. Radiographs demonstrate a pathologic fracture through an expansile, eccentric, radiolucent metaphyseal lesion in the proximal humerus.

MRI shows multiple fluid-fluid levels within the lesion. An open biopsy reveals blood-filled cavernous spaces lacking an endothelial lining. If this lesion is primary in nature, cytogenetic analysis is most likely to reveal an upregulation of which of the following genes?

. GNAS
. EXT1
. USP6
. TP53
. MDM2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic, and histologic findings are characteristic of an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC). Primary ABCs are characterized by recurrent translocations, most commonly t(16;17)(q22;p13), which lead to the upregulation of the USP6 (ubiquitin-specific protease 6) gene. This genetic finding helps differentiate primary ABCs from secondary ABC-like changes that can occur within other tumors such as giant cell tumors, osteoblastomas, or chondroblastomas. GNAS is associated with fibrous dysplasia. MDM2 amplification is seen in parosteal osteosarcoma and atypical lipomatous tumors.

Question 2662

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 9-year-old boy undergoes evaluation for mild shoulder discomfort. A radiograph reveals a centrally located, purely lytic lesion in the proximal humerus diaphysis with thinning of the cortices. A 'fallen leaf' sign is noted.

Diagnostic aspiration yields clear, serous yellow fluid. Laboratory analysis of this fluid is most likely to show markedly elevated levels of which of the following compared to normal serum?

. Prostaglandin E2 and Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Calcium and Phosphorus
. Alkaline phosphatase and Osteocalcin
. Lactic acid dehydrogenase (LDH) and Uric acid
. Basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) and Transforming growth factor (TGF-b)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2 and Interleukin-1 (IL-1)


Explanation

The presentation is classic for a Unicameral Bone Cyst (UBC), or simple bone cyst. The fluid within a UBC is typically serous and clear yellow. Biochemical analysis of UBC fluid characteristically demonstrates high concentrations of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and Interleukin-1 (IL-1), both of which are potent stimulators of osteoclastic bone resorption. This provides the rationale for treatments such as methylprednisolone injection, which decreases the production of these inflammatory mediators.

Question 2663

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old man presents with chronic knee swelling and episodes of hemarthrosis without any history of trauma. MRI of the knee demonstrates a diffuse, nodular synovial proliferation with a prominent 'blooming artifact' on gradient-echo sequences.

Biopsy confirms pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS). The pathogenesis of this condition involves a translocation typically resulting in the overproduction of which molecule?

. Macrophage colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)
. Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)
. Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophage colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1)


Explanation

Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis (PVNS), also known as Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (TGCT), is a benign but locally aggressive neoplasm. It is driven by a t(1;2) translocation that fuses the COL6A3 promoter to the CSF1 (Colony-Stimulating Factor 1) gene. This causes a small clone of neoplastic cells to secrete massive amounts of CSF1, which acts via a paracrine mechanism to recruit abundant, non-neoplastic macrophages and multinucleated giant cells that express the CSF1 receptor, forming the bulk of the tumor. Targeted therapies like pexidartinib (a CSF1R inhibitor) capitalize on this pathway.

Question 2664

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old man complains of localized pain in the proximal tibia that is significantly worse at night. He reports that over-the-counter ibuprofen provides dramatic relief within 30 minutes. Plain radiographs demonstrate an area of dense cortical thickening with a small 8-mm radiolucent central nidus.

The intense nocturnal pain characteristic of this lesion is mediated by a tremendously increased local concentration of which substance?

. Substance P
. Histamine
. Bradykinin
. Prostaglandin E2
. Leukotriene B4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Substance P


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for an Osteoid Osteoma. The radiolucent nidus is characterized by highly vascularized osteoid-producing tissue. The lesional osteoblasts produce very high levels of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), leading to a massive local overproduction of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), sometimes 100 to 1000 times normal tissue levels. PGE2 directly causes profound pain, vasodilation, and surrounding reactive bone sclerosis. This mechanism perfectly explains the classic clinical symptom of nocturnal pain that is exquisitely sensitive to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen.

Question 2665

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 22-year-old man presents with a painful, enlarging mass in his distal femur. A core needle biopsy reveals a highly pleomorphic spindle cell neoplasm producing fine, lace-like osteoid matrix. The patient's family history is significant for a mother who died of breast cancer at age 35 and a sister who was treated for a childhood adrenocortical carcinoma. Which of the following genetic syndromes is most strongly associated with an increased risk of developing this specific bone tumor?

. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
. Neurofibromatosis type 1
. Multiple hereditary exostoses
. McCune-Albright syndrome
. Marfan syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Li-Fraumeni syndrome


Explanation

The clinical presentation and biopsy findings of a spindle cell neoplasm producing osteoid are diagnostic of osteosarcoma, the most common primary bone malignancy in young adults. The strong family history of early-onset breast cancer and adrenocortical carcinoma suggests Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a germline mutation in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene. It significantly increases the risk for osteosarcoma, soft tissue sarcomas, breast cancer, brain tumors, and leukemias. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is associated with malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors. Multiple hereditary exostoses (EXT1/EXT2 mutations) predispose to peripheral chondrosarcoma. McCune-Albright syndrome is associated with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.

Question 2666

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 10-year-old boy is evaluated for several months of severe thigh pain that is notably worse at night and dramatically relieved by taking ibuprofen. Radiographs and subsequent CT imaging reveal a 7 mm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense reactive cortical sclerosis in the proximal femoral diaphysis. Which of the following inflammatory mediators is produced in abnormally high concentrations by the cells within this lesion, directly causing the patient's classic pain symptoms?

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)


Explanation

The diagnosis is an osteoid osteoma, a benign bone-forming tumor classically presenting with severe, unrelenting night pain that is rapidly relieved by NSAIDs. The tumor consists of a small (<1.5 cm) vascularized nidus composed of osteoblasts that express high levels of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2). This leads to a marked overproduction of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). The high concentration of PGE2 within the nidus induces local vasodilation, increases vascular permeability, and directly sensitizes local free nerve endings, leading to the characteristic intense pain. NSAIDs provide profound relief by inhibiting COX-2 and subsequent PGE2 synthesis. While interleukins and TNF-alpha are general inflammatory mediators, PGE2 is the specific driver of pain in osteoid osteoma.

Question 2667

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old girl is diagnosed with a highly aggressive, small blue cell tumor involving the diaphysis of her right femur. Cytogenetic and molecular analysis confirms the diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma. This malignancy is classically characterized by a specific balanced reciprocal translocation that creates an aberrant fusion transcription factor. Which of the following translocations is most specific to this disease process?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12) EWS-FLI1
. t(X;18)(p11;q11) SYT-SSX1
. t(12;16)(q13;p11) FUS-CHOP
. t(2;13)(q35;q14) PAX3-FKHR
. t(17;22)(q22;q13) COL1A1-PDGFB

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12) EWS-FLI1


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is driven by a recurrent, balanced chromosomal translocation. In approximately 85-90% of cases, this is the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which fuses the EWS gene on chromosome 22 with the FLI1 gene on chromosome 11. The resulting EWS-FLI1 fusion protein acts as an oncogenic transcription factor. The t(X;18) translocation (producing the SYT-SSX fusion) is the molecular hallmark of synovial sarcoma. The t(12;16) FUS-CHOP translocation is diagnostic for myxoid liposarcoma. The t(2;13) PAX3-FKHR translocation is found in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. The t(17;22) COL1A1-PDGFB translocation is characteristic of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.

Question 2668

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old woman is evaluated for a slowly enlarging, painful mass in her proximal humerus. Imaging demonstrates a medullary lesion with 'rings and arcs' calcification. Biopsy confirms an atypical cartilaginous tumor (grade 1 central chondrosarcoma). Recent advances in molecular pathology have identified a specific somatic mutation common to both solitary enchondromas and central chondrosarcomas. Which of the following genes is most likely mutated in this patient's tumor?

. EXT1
. GNAS
. IDH1
. TP53
. RB1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EXT1


Explanation

Mutations in the Isocitrate Dehydrogenase 1 and 2 (IDH1 and IDH2) genes are present in up to 50-70% of solitary enchondromas and central chondrosarcomas. These mutations cause the enzyme to produce an oncometabolite, 2-hydroxyglutarate (2-HG), which leads to hypermethylation of DNA and histones, preventing normal cellular differentiation and promoting tumorigenesis. EXT1 and EXT2 mutations are associated with Multiple Hereditary Exostoses and the development of peripheral chondrosarcomas. GNAS mutations are the hallmark of fibrous dysplasia. TP53 and RB1 mutations are classically associated with the development of osteosarcoma.

Question 2669

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old girl presents with swelling and pain in her left distal femur. Radiographs show a rapidly expanding, destructive lytic lesion with a 'blown-out' appearance. Biopsy reveals blood-filled cystic spaces lacking an endothelial lining, separated by cellular fibrous septa containing multinucleated giant cells and reactive woven bone. Which of the following molecular findings is most specific for confirming the diagnosis of a primary aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC)?

. Amplification of MDM2
. Translocation involving USP6 (t(16;17))
. Mutation in the H3F3A gene
. Translocation involving EWS-FLI1
. Loss of heterozygosity at chromosome 13q14

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Amplification of MDM2


Explanation

Primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts (ABCs) are now recognized as genuine neoplasms rather than merely reactive processes. The hallmark molecular alteration is a recurrent translocation involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17p13, most commonly t(16;17)(q22;p13), which fuses CDH11 promoter to the USP6 gene. This results in significant upregulation of USP6 transcription, which acts via the NF-kB pathway to drive the cystic, bone-destructive nature of the lesion. Identifying a USP6 rearrangement is highly useful in distinguishing a primary ABC from a secondary ABC (which occurs as a reactive change within another tumor, like giant cell tumor or chondroblastoma) or from a telangiectatic osteosarcoma. MDM2 amplification is seen in parosteal osteosarcoma and atypical lipomatous tumors. H3F3A mutations are seen in giant cell tumors of bone and chondroblastomas.

Question 2670

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

You are evaluating the biopsy of articular cartilage from a 25-year-old athlete with a focal chondral defect. The normal articular cartilage surrounding the defect is analyzed. In which zone of the articular cartilage do the collagen fibers orient perpendicular to the subchondral bone, and what is the predominant type of collagen?

. Superficial zone; Type I collagen
. Middle (transitional) zone; Type II collagen
. Deep zone; Type I collagen
. Deep zone; Type II collagen
. Calcified zone; Type X collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial zone; Type I collagen


Explanation

Articular cartilage is predominantly composed of Type II collagen across all uncalcified zones. The deep (basal) zone is characterized by collagen fibers that are oriented perpendicular to the articular surface and subchondral bone, providing resistance to compressive forces. The superficial zone has collagen oriented parallel to the joint surface to resist shear forces. Type X collagen is primarily found in the calcified zone of articular cartilage and the hypertrophic zone of the physis.

Question 2671

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 22-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of dull aching pain in his posterior thoracic spine. The pain is persistent and not reliably relieved by NSAIDs. A CT scan shows a 2.5-cm expansile radiolucent lesion in the posterior elements of T10 with surrounding reactive sclerosis. Histology shows interlacing trabeculae of woven bone with prominent osteoblastic rimming and vascular connective tissue, but no cellular atypia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Osteosarcoma
. Chondroblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoid osteoma


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is consistent with an osteoblastoma. Osteoblastomas are histologically identical to osteoid osteomas (interlacing woven bone trabeculae with osteoblastic rimming) but are distinguished clinically and radiographically by their larger size (>2.0 cm), distinct predilection for the posterior elements of the spine, and pain that is less consistently nocturnal or relieved by NSAIDs compared to the exquisite NSAID sensitivity of osteoid osteomas.

Question 2672

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old girl presents with progressive pain and swelling in her mid-thigh. Radiographs show a permeative diaphyseal lesion in the femur with a prominent 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A core needle biopsy reveals sheets of small round blue cells. Molecular genetic testing of the biopsy specimen is most likely to show which of the following chromosomal translocations?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(9;22)(q34;q11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic (diaphyseal permeative lesion, onion-skinning), and histological ('small round blue cell' tumor) presentation is highly characteristic of Ewing sarcoma. The diagnostic molecular hallmark of Ewing sarcoma is the t(11;22)(q24;q12) chromosomal translocation, present in 85% to 90% of cases, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. Other translocations: t(X;18) represents synovial sarcoma; t(2;13) represents alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; and t(12;16) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 2673

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with persistent knee pain for 3 months. Radiographs demonstrate a 2-cm epiphyseal radiolucent lesion in the proximal tibia with a thin sclerotic rim. MRI shows extensive surrounding bone marrow edema. Histologic examination of a biopsy specimen reveals sheets of mononuclear cells with characteristic nuclear grooves and focal areas of 'chicken-wire' pericellular calcification. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

. Extended intralesional curettage, burring, and bone grafting
. Wide surgical resection and endoprosthetic reconstruction
. Observation and administration of NSAIDs
. Multi-agent chemotherapy followed by wide resection
. Primary radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extended intralesional curettage, burring, and bone grafting


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic, and histologic presentation is classic for a chondroblastoma. It typically occurs in the epiphysis of long bones in skeletally immature patients. Characteristic histology includes mononuclear cells with grooved nuclei (coffee-bean shape), multinucleated giant cells, and 'chicken-wire' calcification. Treatment consists of extended intralesional curettage with high-speed burring, followed by bone grafting or cementation. Wide resection is reserved for rare cases of massive joint destruction, and chemotherapy/radiation are not indicated for this benign entity.

Question 2674

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old girl is evaluated for a painful, enlarging mass about her distal thigh. Radiographs reveal a destructive, bone-forming metaphyseal lesion of the distal femur with a sunburst periosteal reaction and Codman triangle. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis of conventional osteosarcoma. Alterations in which of the following cellular mechanisms are most strongly implicated in the pathogenesis of this condition?

. Overexpression of RANKL
. Mutation in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes
. Malfunction of the Rb and p53 tumor suppressor pathways
. Translocation involving the EWSR1 gene
. Activating mutation of the GNAS gene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overexpression of RANKL


Explanation

Conventional osteosarcoma is highly associated with mutations in tumor suppressor genes, primarily the retinoblastoma (Rb) gene and the p53 gene. Patients with hereditary retinoblastoma (germline Rb mutation) and Li-Fraumeni syndrome (germline p53 mutation) have a significantly increased risk of developing osteosarcoma. Overexpression of RANKL is seen in giant cell tumor of bone. EXT gene mutations are associated with multiple hereditary exostoses (osteochondromas). EWSR1 translocations are characteristic of Ewing sarcoma, and GNAS mutations are seen in fibrous dysplasia.

Question 2675

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 10-year-old boy presents with a 2-month history of worsening thigh pain, particularly at night, accompanied by intermittent low-grade fever. Radiographs show a permeative, diaphyseal radiolucent lesion in the femur with a lamellated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals sheets of uniform small round blue cells that express high levels of MIC2 (CD99). Molecular analysis is most likely to identify which of the following chromosomal translocations?

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q34;q11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)


Explanation

The clinical and histologic findings are diagnostic of Ewing sarcoma. This high-grade primary bone tumor is characterized by small round blue cells with strong membranous staining for CD99 (MIC2). Ewing sarcoma is driven by a characteristic chromosomal translocation, most commonly t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the EWSR1-FLI1 fusion gene. t(X;18) is associated with synovial sarcoma, t(12;16) with myxoid liposarcoma, t(2;13) with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma, and t(9;22) with chronic myelogenous leukemia (Philadelphia chromosome).

Question 2676

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 22-year-old man presents with severe right leg pain that predictably awakens him at night but is completely relieved within 30 minutes of taking ibuprofen. Radiographs demonstrate cortical thickening in the anterior tibial diaphysis. CT scan confirms a 9-mm radiolucent nidus with central calcification surrounded by dense reactive bone. After 6 months of conservative management, the patient requests definitive treatment due to gastrointestinal intolerance of NSAIDs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

. En bloc wide resection of the lesion
. Extended intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Percutaneous radiofrequency ablation
. Neoadjuvant denosumab therapy
. External beam radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. En bloc wide resection of the lesion


Explanation

The patient has an osteoid osteoma, a benign bone forming tumor characterized by a small nidus (<1.5 cm) surrounded by reactive sclerosis, which produces high levels of prostaglandins causing nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs. While conservative management with NSAIDs can be successful as the lesions may eventually burn out, definitive surgical treatment is indicated for intractable pain or NSAID intolerance. The current gold standard for definitive management is CT-guided percutaneous radiofrequency ablation (RFA), which offers excellent success rates with minimal morbidity compared to open surgical excision.

Question 2677

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with a painful, destructive diaphyseal lesion of the femur with a large soft tissue extension. A core needle biopsy reveals sheets of uniform small round blue cells. Cytogenetic analysis is most likely to identify which of the following chromosomal translocations?

. t(11;22)
. t(9;22)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)
. t(X;18)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

The clinical, radiographic (diaphyseal lesion), and histologic (small round blue cells) findings are highly characteristic of Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is classically driven by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which fuses the EWS gene on chromosome 22 to the FLI1 gene on chromosome 11, creating an oncogenic transcription factor. t(9;22) is associated with extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma; t(12;16) with myxoid liposarcoma; t(2;13) with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; and t(X;18) with synovial sarcoma.

Question 2678

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with progressive knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate a destructive diaphyseal lesion of the distal femur with an associated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A subsequent incisional biopsy reveals sheets of uniform, small, round blue cells. Immunohistochemistry demonstrates strong membranous staining for CD99. A molecular cytogenetic test reveals a t(11;22) translocation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteosarcoma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Multiple myeloma
. Lymphoma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

The classic presentation of a diaphyseal bone lesion with 'onion-skin' periostitis in an adolescent strongly suggests Ewing sarcoma. The histology (small, round blue cells), positive immunohistochemistry for CD99 (MIC2), and the pathognomonic t(11;22)(q24;q12) chromosomal translocation (which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion gene) definitively confirm the diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma. Osteosarcoma typically involves the metaphysis and produces malignant osteoid.

Question 2679

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with an aggressive diaphyseal lesion in his right femur. A biopsy demonstrates sheets of small round blue cells. Cytogenetic analysis reveals a t(11;22) translocation. Which of the following fusion genes is most likely present?

. SYT-SSX
. TLS-CHOP
. EWS-FLI1
. PAX3-FOXO1
. BCR-ABL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SYT-SSX


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumor that commonly arises in the diaphysis of long bones in children and adolescents. The classic cytogenetic abnormality is the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion gene (found in about 85% of cases). SYT-SSX is associated with synovial sarcoma [t(X;18)]. TLS-CHOP is seen in myxoid liposarcoma [t(12;16)]. PAX3-FOXO1 is seen in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma [t(2;13)].

Question 2680

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with a destructive diaphyseal lesion of the femur with a large soft tissue mass. Biopsy reveals uniform small blue cells. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most characteristic of this tumor?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(2;13)
. t(12;16)
. t(9;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

Ewing's sarcoma is classically associated with the t(11;22)(q24;q12) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma. t(2;13) is seen in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. t(12;16) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma. t(9;22) is the Philadelphia chromosome seen in chronic myelogenous leukemia.