This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 10. Pathology and Oncology. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2581
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 45-year-old man presents with chronic, dull lower back and perineal pain. Advanced imaging reveals a destructive, midline expansile lytic lesion in the sacrum. Histological examination of a biopsy specimen demonstrates large, vacuolated cells with a bubbly cytoplasm arranged in cords within a myxoid background. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers is most likely to be positive in this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. S-100 only
Explanation
The clinical presentation (midline sacral lesion) and histology (physaliferous cells with bubbly cytoplasm in a myxoid background) are highly characteristic of a chordoma. Chordomas are tumors of notochordal remnant origin. They characteristically express Brachyury, a transcription factor essential for notochord development, which is highly specific and sensitive for chordoma. They also typically express cytokeratins and EMA. CD99 is a marker for Ewing sarcoma; MUC4 for low-grade fibromyxoid sarcoma; MDM2 for well-differentiated liposarcoma and parosteal osteosarcoma.
Question 2582
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old boy is evaluated for persistent left thigh pain and swelling. Radiographs show a permeative, aggressive diaphyseal lesion in the femur with a prominent 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A core needle biopsy is performed. Molecular cytogenetic testing of the biopsy specimen is most likely to reveal which of the following chromosomal translocations?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(X;18)
Explanation
The clinical presentation of a permeative diaphyseal lesion with an 'onion-skin' (lamellated) periosteal reaction in an adolescent is highly characteristic of Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumor driven by specific chromosomal translocations. The most common translocation, found in approximately 85-90% of cases, is t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the fusion of the EWS gene on chromosome 22 with the FLI1 gene on chromosome 11. t(X;18) is associated with synovial sarcoma; t(12;16) with myxoid liposarcoma; and t(2;13) with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.
Question 2583
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 28-year-old man presents with a slow-growing, painless mass in his foot. MRI shows a well-circumscribed soft tissue mass adjacent to the plantar fascia. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and spindle cell components. What is the most characteristic chromosomal translocation associated with this diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(11;22)
Explanation
Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which results in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. It commonly presents in young adults, frequently in the extremities (especially foot/ankle and knee). Biphasic histology shows both spindle and epithelial cells. t(11;22) is Ewing sarcoma, t(12;16) is myxoid liposarcoma, t(2;13) is alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma, and t(9;22) is extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma.
Question 2584
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old boy presents with thigh pain and low-grade fevers. Radiographs show a permeative diaphyseal lesion in the femur with a classic 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Biopsy shows small round blue cells. Immunohistochemistry is strongly positive for CD99. Which of the following gene fusions is most commonly responsible for this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. EWS-FLI1
Explanation
The scenario describes Ewing sarcoma, characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein in approximately 85-90% of cases. SYT-SSX is associated with synovial sarcoma. PAX3-FOXO1 is associated with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. TLS-CHOP (FUS-DDIT3) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma. COL1A1-PDGFB is seen in dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP).
Question 2585
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with high-grade conventional osteosarcoma of the proximal tibia. She undergoes neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection. Which of the following factors has been shown to be the most important prognostic indicator for overall survival in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The specific histologic subtype of conventional osteosarcoma
Explanation
In high-grade conventional osteosarcoma, the percentage of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the most significant and reliable prognostic factor for overall and disease-free survival. Good responders (typically >90% necrosis) have significantly better outcomes than poor responders. While baseline alkaline phosphatase and tumor size have some prognostic value, histologic response to chemotherapy is paramount.
Question 2586
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 9-year-old girl presents with a limp. Radiographs of her proximal femur show a characteristic 'shepherd's crook' deformity with a ground-glass appearance of the medullary canal. She also has irregular café-au-lait spots on her trunk and a history of precocious puberty. This condition is primarily caused by a mutation leading to which of the following cellular abnormalities?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of heterozygosity of the EXT1 tumor suppressor gene
Explanation
The clinical presentation is classic for McCune-Albright syndrome, a triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait macules ('Coast of Maine' borders), and endocrine abnormalities (such as precocious puberty). The underlying cause is a post-zygotic somatic activating mutation in the GNAS gene, which encodes the alpha subunit of the Gs G-protein. This leads to constitutive activation of adenylate cyclase and overproduction of intracellular cAMP.
Question 2587
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old man presents with progressive deep thigh pain, worse at night. Radiographs demonstrate a large, predominantly lytic lesion in the proximal femur with endosteal scalloping greater than two-thirds of the cortical thickness and focal cortical breakthrough. MRI shows a lobulated mass with high signal intensity on T2-weighted images. Biopsy is read as a grade 2 chondrosarcoma. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intralesional curettage, high-speed burring, and bone grafting
Explanation
Conventional grade 2 (intermediate-grade) chondrosarcoma of the appendicular skeleton is treated with wide surgical resection. These tumors are generally resistant to chemotherapy and radiation. Intralesional curettage is reserved for benign cartilaginous lesions (e.g., enchondroma) or some selected atypical cartilaginous tumors (Grade 1 chondrosarcoma) in the appendicular skeleton, not for grade 2 lesions with cortical breakthrough.
Question 2588
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy presents with rapid swelling and pain in his left humerus. Radiographs show an expansile, eccentrically located, lytic metaphyseal lesion with 'blown-out' cortices. MRI reveals multiple fluid-fluid levels. Biopsy confirms a primary aneurysmal bone cyst. Primary aneurysmal bone cysts are frequently associated with a recurrent chromosomal translocation resulting in the upregulation of which of the following genes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. USP6
Explanation
Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are now recognized as true neoplasms, driven by recurrent translocations most commonly involving t(16;17)(q22;p13), which leads to the fusion of the promoter region of CDH11 (or other genes) to the coding region of USP6. This results in the upregulation of USP6, a deubiquitinating enzyme.
Question 2589
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 35-year-old woman presents with chronic, progressive swelling and catching of her right knee. Aspiration yields dark, bloody synovial fluid. MRI reveals a large, lobulated intra-articular mass with 'blooming artifact' on gradient-echo sequences. The pathogenesis of this condition is primarily driven by a translocation resulting in the overexpression of which of the following factors?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)
Explanation
Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS), now more accurately termed Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (TGCT), is driven by a neoplastic clone of synovial cells. In many cases, a t(1;2) translocation causes fusion of the COL6A3 gene to the CSF1 gene, leading to overexpression and secretion of Colony-Stimulating Factor 1 (CSF1). This recruits large numbers of non-neoplastic macrophages and multinucleated giant cells expressing the CSF1 receptor, which make up the bulk of the tumor mass.
Question 2590
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 28-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing, painless mass on the posterior aspect of her distal thigh. Radiographs demonstrate a heavily ossified, lobulated mass attached to the posterior cortex of the distal femur by a broad base, with a radiolucent 'string sign' visible between the tumor and the underlying bone. Which of the following molecular alterations is most characteristic of this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MDM2 and CDK4 gene amplification
Explanation
The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for a parosteal osteosarcoma, a low-grade surface osteosarcoma that typically arises on the posterior aspect of the distal femur. The 'string sign' represents a radiolucent cleft between the tumor and the cortex. Molecularly, parosteal osteosarcomas are characterized by supernumerary ring chromosomes leading to the amplification of the MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12q13-15.
Question 2591
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 14-year-old boy presents with a 2-month history of worsening thigh pain, worse at night, and intermittent fevers. Radiographs show a permeative, destructive diaphyseal lesion with an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction in the femur. Biopsy reveals small, round blue cells that strongly express CD99. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most commonly associated with this patient's diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
Explanation
The clinical and histological presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumor that is CD99 positive. It is most commonly characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. Option B t(X;18) is associated with Synovial sarcoma. Option C t(12;16) is associated with Myxoid liposarcoma. Option D t(2;13) is associated with Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. Option E t(9;22) is associated with extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma.
Question 2592
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 19-year-old man presents with aching pain in his left mid-thigh that has been present for 6 months. The pain is characteristically worse at night and is dramatically relieved within 30 minutes of taking ibuprofen. CT scan demonstrates a 0.8 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense reactive cortical sclerosis in the femoral diaphysis. The dramatic pain relief with NSAIDs is due to the inhibition of which of the following substances synthesized in high amounts by this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
Explanation
Osteoid osteomas characteristically present with intense night pain that is rapidly and dramatically relieved by NSAIDs. The nidus of the tumor produces extraordinarily high levels of prostaglandins, specifically Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), which mediates the pain by irritating local nerve endings. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) by NSAIDs decreases PGE2 synthesis, providing symptom relief.
Question 2593
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 12-year-old girl presents with pain and swelling over her left proximal humerus after a minor fall. Radiographs show an expansile, eccentric, radiolucent lesion in the metaphysis. MRI demonstrates multiple internal fluid-fluid levels. Biopsy reveals blood-filled cystic spaces separated by fibrous septa containing osteoclast-like giant cells. Which of the following genetic alterations is most characteristic of the primary form of this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. GNAS mutation
Explanation
The clinical, radiographic, and MRI findings (fluid-fluid levels) represent an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Primary aneurysmal bone cysts are characterized by translocations involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17p13 in up to 70% of cases. The most common fusion partner is CDH11. GNAS mutations are associated with fibrous dysplasia. EXT1/EXT2 mutations are seen in multiple hereditary exostoses. H3F3A mutations are highly specific for giant cell tumors of bone and chondroblastomas. IDH1/2 mutations are seen in enchondromas and chondrosarcomas.
Question 2594
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 55-year-old man undergoes radiographs of his shoulder for rotator cuff symptoms, which incidentally reveal a 4 cm calcified lesion in the proximal humeral metaphysis. The calcifications are described as having a 'rings and arcs' appearance. Which of the following MRI findings would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of low-grade chondrosarcoma rather than a benign enchondroma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lobular growth pattern
Explanation
Differentiating an enchondroma from a low-grade chondrosarcoma can be challenging as both are cartilaginous lesions with 'rings and arcs' calcifications and high T2 signal intensity. Radiographic and MRI features suggestive of malignancy (chondrosarcoma) include deep endosteal scalloping (greater than two-thirds of the cortical thickness), cortical breakthrough, soft tissue extension, size > 5 cm, and pain at rest that is not explained by other local pathology (like a rotator cuff tear).
Question 2595
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for a leg length discrepancy and a limp. Radiographs of the left femur reveal a large medullary lesion with a 'ground-glass' appearance and a characteristic 'shepherd's crook' deformity of the proximal femur. She also has several large, irregular hyperpigmented macules on her back and signs of precocious puberty. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of her underlying condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A defect in osteoclast differentiation due to a RANKL mutation
Explanation
The patient's presentation of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots with irregular 'coast of Maine' borders, and endocrine abnormalities (precocious puberty) is diagnostic of McCune-Albright syndrome. Fibrous dysplasia and McCune-Albright syndrome are caused by a somatic activating mutation in the GNAS gene, which encodes the alpha subunit of the Gs protein. This leads to constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase and high levels of intracellular cAMP, affecting bone, skin, and endocrine tissues.
Question 2596
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 15-year-old boy twists his ankle while playing basketball. Radiographs are negative for an acute fracture but incidentally demonstrate an eccentric, cortically based, well-circumscribed radiolucent lesion with a sclerotic margin in the distal tibial metaphysis. The lesion measures 3 cm in length. He has no pain localized to the site of the lesion itself. What is the most appropriate management of this incidental finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate curettage and bone grafting to prevent pathologic fracture
Explanation
The radiographic description is classic for a non-ossifying fibroma (NOF), a very common benign, asymptomatic fibrogenic lesion of childhood and adolescence. They present as eccentric, multi-loculated, cortically based radiolucent lesions with sclerotic margins in the metaphysis of long bones. Lesions smaller than 50% of the bone diameter are at low risk of fracture. Because NOFs typically undergo spontaneous ossification and resolve as the skeleton matures, asymptomatic, incidentally discovered NOFs require only reassurance and observation.
Question 2597
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 30-year-old woman presents with multiple asymmetric cartilaginous lesions in the short tubular bones of her hands and long bones, consistent with Ollier disease. What is the approximate lifetime risk of malignant transformation of these lesions, and what is the most common gene mutation associated with this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1%, EXT1
Explanation
Ollier disease is characterized by multiple enchondromas typically affecting one side of the body. The lifetime risk of malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma is approximately 25-30% (whereas Maffucci syndrome carries a higher risk). It is strongly associated with somatic mutations in the IDH1 and IDH2 genes. EXT1/2 are associated with Multiple Hereditary Exostoses, and GNAS is associated with Fibrous Dysplasia.
Question 2598
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 16-year-old boy presents with severe, progressive right thigh pain that is worse at night and dramatically improves with ibuprofen. Radiographs show a thickened cortical diaphyseal area, and a CT scan
reveals a 7-mm radiolucent nidus with central calcification. What inflammatory mediator is found in high concentrations within the nidus of this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
Explanation
The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. These benign bone-forming tumors secrete abnormally high levels of prostaglandins, specifically Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), produced by cyclooxygenase enzymes within the nidus. This causes the characteristic intense night pain and explains the dramatic clinical response to NSAIDs.
Question 2599
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 28-year-old man presents with a slow-growing, painful mass in his plantar foot. MRI reveals a soft tissue mass with heterogeneous signal intensity, and a core biopsy is performed. The diagnosis of synovial sarcoma is confirmed. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most characteristic of this tumor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
Explanation
Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which results in the fusion of the SYT gene on chromosome 18 with one of the SSX genes on the X chromosome (most commonly SSX1 or SSX2). Ewing sarcoma is associated with t(11;22). Myxoid liposarcoma has t(12;16). Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma has t(2;13) or t(1;13).
Question 2600
Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
An asymptomatic 9-year-old boy undergoes a radiograph of his tibia after a minor contusion. The radiograph
reveals an eccentrically located, multilobulated, lytic lesion with a sclerotic rim in the distal tibial metaphysis. It measures 2 cm in length and occupies less than 20% of the bone diameter. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Core needle biopsy to rule out malignancy
Explanation
The lesion described is a non-ossifying fibroma (NOF) or fibrous cortical defect, given the patient's age, asymptomatic nature, and classic radiographic appearance (eccentric, metaphyseal, lytic with sclerotic rim). Since it occupies less than 50% of the bone diameter and the patient is asymptomatic, the risk of pathologic fracture is extremely low. These lesions typically ossify and resolve spontaneously as the child approaches skeletal maturity, requiring only observation.
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