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Question 2361

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with knee pain. Radiographs reveal a well-circumscribed, eccentrically located lytic lesion with sclerotic margins in the epiphysis of the distal femur. Histology shows polygonal mononuclear cells with longitudinal nuclear grooves and scattered multinucleated giant cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Giant cell tumor
. Chondroblastoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondroblastoma


Explanation

Chondroblastoma typically occurs in the epiphysis or apophysis of long bones in skeletally immature patients. The classic histological appearance includes mononuclear cells with longitudinal nuclear grooves ('coffee bean' nuclei), multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells, and 'chicken-wire' calcification. Giant cell tumor occurs in skeletally mature patients.

Question 2362

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which specific chromosomal translocation is pathognomonic for synovial sarcoma?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(x;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q34;q11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(x;18)(p11;q11)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the pathognomonic t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which results in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma. t(12;16) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma. t(2;13) is seen in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 2363

Topic: Bone Tumors

Which of the following genetic mutations is most frequently identified in patients with central chondrosarcoma and is also considered a hallmark of multiple enchondromatosis (Ollier disease and Maffucci syndrome)?

. EXT1 / EXT2
. GNAS
. IDH1 / IDH2
. TP53
. RUNX2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. IDH1 / IDH2


Explanation

Mutations in the isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 and 2 (IDH1 and IDH2) genes are found in up to 80% of central enchondromas and chondrosarcomas. They are hallmark mutations in Ollier disease and Maffucci syndrome. EXT1/2 mutations are seen in hereditary multiple exostoses. GNAS is mutated in fibrous dysplasia.

Question 2364

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

An 11-year-old boy presents with a painful mass in the diaphysis of the femur. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells. Cytogenetic analysis is pending. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most characteristic of this tumor and what is the corresponding fusion gene product?

. t(11;22) EWS-FLI1
. t(X;18) SYT-SSX
. t(2;13) PAX3-FKHR
. t(12;16) FUS-CHOP
. t(9;22) BCR-ABL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22) EWS-FLI1


Explanation

The clinical and histological presentation is highly characteristic of Ewing sarcoma. The most common cytogenetic abnormality in Ewing sarcoma is the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is associated with synovial sarcoma; t(2;13) with alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma; t(12;16) with myxoid liposarcoma; and t(9;22) is the Philadelphia chromosome seen in CML.

Question 2365

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 68-year-old male presents with severe back pain. Radiographs reveal multiple punched-out lytic lesions in the skull and a compression fracture of L2. Laboratory tests show hypercalcemia and elevated total protein. Which of the following tests is most definitive for confirming the underlying diagnosis?

. Serum alkaline phosphatase
. Technetium-99m bone scan
. Bone marrow biopsy and serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP)
. Prostatic specific antigen (PSA)
. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone marrow biopsy and serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP)


Explanation

The clinical picture of 'punched-out' lytic lesions, hypercalcemia, and elevated total protein in an older adult is classic for multiple myeloma. The definitive diagnosis is made via bone marrow aspirate/biopsy (showing >10% clonal plasma cells) and demonstration of a monoclonal protein spike on serum or urine protein electrophoresis (SPEP/UPEP). Bone scans are typically cold in multiple myeloma because there is very little reactive osteoblastic activity.

Question 2366

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy presents with a permeative lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the femur with an associated 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells. The most likely diagnosis is associated with a fusion gene resulting from which of the following chromosomal translocations?

. t(11;22)
. t(9;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(2;13)
. t(12;16)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. Ewing sarcoma is classically characterized by the chromosomal translocation t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. CD99 (MIC2) is a highly sensitive immunohistochemical marker for this tumor. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma, t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma, and t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma.

Question 2367

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following bone tumors is characterized as a low-grade, surface-originating malignancy that is heavily ossified, commonly arises on the posterior aspect of the distal femur, and frequently exhibits amplification of MDM2 and CDK4?

. Osteochondroma
. Periosteal osteosarcoma
. Parosteal osteosarcoma
. Classic high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma
. Telangiectatic osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parosteal osteosarcoma


Explanation

Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade surface osteosarcoma that typically arises on the posterior surface of the distal femur. Radiographically, it appears as a heavily ossified, broad-based mass 'stuck on' the cortex, sometimes with a radiolucent string sign separating it from the underlying bone. Cytogenetically, it is characterized by ring chromosomes leading to amplification of MDM2 and CDK4.

Question 2368

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old female presents with a painless, slow-growing mass on the posterior aspect of her distal thigh. Radiographs demonstrate a dense, lobulated, ossified mass attached to the posterior cortex of the distal femur with a 'string sign' visible at its base. Histology reveals low-grade spindle cells with well-formed bony trabeculae. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most characteristic of this lesion?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. MDM2/CDK4 gene amplification
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. MYC gene amplification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2/CDK4 gene amplification


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for a parosteal osteosarcoma (surface osteosarcoma, typically low-grade, located on the posterior distal femur). It is characterized genetically by the amplification of MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12q13-15.

Question 2369

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old male presents with chronic hip pain. Radiographs reveal a radiolucent lesion strictly contained within the epiphysis of the proximal femur with subtle intralesional calcifications. Histology shows cells with abundant clear cytoplasm, well-defined borders, and interspersed areas of mature bone formation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoblastoma
. Chondroblastoma
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Giant cell tumor of bone
. Telangiectatic osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clear cell chondrosarcoma


Explanation

Clear cell chondrosarcoma is an atypical low-grade malignant cartilage tumor that classically arises in the epiphysis of long bones (especially the proximal femur) in adults (third to fifth decades). It is frequently misdiagnosed as chondroblastoma, but chondroblastoma typically occurs in skeletally immature patients.

Question 2370

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with right knee pain. Radiographs reveal a well-circumscribed, eccentrically located lytic lesion with a sclerotic rim in the proximal tibial epiphysis. Biopsy demonstrates mononuclear cells with longitudinal nuclear grooves and pericellular 'chicken-wire' calcifications. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Giant cell tumor
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Chondroblastoma
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Osteoblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondroblastoma


Explanation

Chondroblastoma is a rare benign, cartilage-producing bone tumor that characteristically arises in the epiphysis or apophysis of skeletally immature patients. Histological hallmarks include chondroblasts with longitudinal nuclear grooves ('coffee bean' nuclei) and fine, lace-like pericellular 'chicken-wire' calcifications.

Question 2371

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old male presents with a slow-growing, painful mass adjacent to his left knee joint, clearly outside the joint capsule on MRI. Histological evaluation of a biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor comprised of spindle cells and epithelial cells. Molecular testing demonstrates a t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation. What is the most accurate diagnosis?

. Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
. Synovial sarcoma
. Clear cell sarcoma
. Epithelioid sarcoma
. Myxoid liposarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Synovial sarcoma


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma classically presents in young adults as a painful mass near large joints (especially the knee), though it rarely originates from actual synovial tissue. It is characterized pathologically by either a biphasic (epithelial and spindle cells) or monophasic spindle cell morphology. The hallmark cytogenetic abnormality is the t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene.

Question 2372

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old male presents with a painful, swollen thigh. Radiographs show a permeative, diaphyseal lesion with an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. A biopsy is performed. Which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities is most characteristic of this patient's likely diagnosis?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q34;q11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

The patient's presentation is classic for Ewing sarcoma. The most common chromosomal translocation associated with Ewing sarcoma is t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is seen in Synovial Sarcoma. t(12;16) is seen in Myxoid Liposarcoma. t(2;13) is seen in Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 2373

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with severe bone pain in his right thigh. Radiographs reveal a diaphyseal lytic lesion with an 'onion skin' periosteal reaction. Biopsy confirms Ewing sarcoma. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is the classic genetic hallmark of this tumor?

. t(9;22)
. t(11;22)
. t(12;16)
. t(X;18)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is classically associated with the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which occurs in over 85% of cases and results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(9;22) is seen in CML or mesenchymal chondrosarcoma; t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma; t(X;18) in synovial sarcoma; and t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 2374

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 62-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer presents with moderate thigh pain. Radiographs reveal a purely lytic lesion in the femoral diaphysis that occupies approximately half (1/2) of the bone diameter. Using Mirels' criteria, what is her score, and what is the recommended management?

. Score 7; radiation therapy alone
. Score 8; protected weight bearing
. Score 9; prophylactic internal fixation
. Score 10; wide resection and endoprosthesis
. Score 11; cast immobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Score 9; prophylactic internal fixation


Explanation

Mirels' criteria determine the risk of pathologic fracture. Site: Lower extremity (2 points). Pain: Moderate (2 points). Lesion: Lytic (3 points). Size: 1/3 to 2/3 of cortex (2 points). Total = 2 + 2 + 3 + 2 = 9. A score of 9 or greater indicates a high risk of fracture (>30%) and serves as an indication for prophylactic internal fixation.

Question 2375

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old male presents with a slowly enlarging, painful mass near his knee joint. MRI shows a soft tissue mass adjacent to, but not within, the joint space. Biopsy reveals a biphasic pattern of epithelial and spindle cells. Which chromosomal translocation is highly diagnostic for this tumor?

. t(11;22)
. t(9;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

The clinical scenario and biphasic histology are characteristic of synovial sarcoma. The pathognomonic chromosomal abnormality for synovial sarcoma is the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which creates the SYT-SSX fusion gene.

Question 2376

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following benign conditions carries the highest risk of undergoing malignant transformation into a secondary chondrosarcoma?

. Nonossifying fibroma
. Osteoid osteoma
. Hereditary multiple exostoses (Multiple osteochondromatosis)
. Unicameral bone cyst
. Chondroblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hereditary multiple exostoses (Multiple osteochondromatosis)


Explanation

Hereditary multiple exostoses (HME) is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by multiple osteochondromas. It carries an estimated 1% to 5% lifetime risk of malignant transformation into secondary chondrosarcoma. Growth of an osteochondroma after skeletal maturity or a cartilage cap thickness >1.5-2.0 cm is highly suspicious for malignant transformation.

Question 2377

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with an aggressive, permeative diaphyseal lesion of the right femur with an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. A core needle biopsy confirms Ewing sarcoma. Which of the following specific chromosomal translocations is most frequently associated with this diagnosis?

. t(9;22)
. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is classically associated with the chromosomal translocation t(11;22)(q24;q12), which results in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. This translocation is found in approximately 85% of cases. t(9;22) is the Philadelphia chromosome seen in CML. t(X;18) is associated with Synovial sarcoma. t(12;16) is seen in Myxoid liposarcoma. t(2;13) is characteristic of Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 2378

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old female presents with a palpable, painless mass behind her right knee. Radiographs demonstrate a heavily ossified, dense mass arising from the posterior cortex of the distal femur. A distinct radiolucent cleft is seen between portions of the mass and the underlying cortex ('string sign'). Histological evaluation reveals low-grade fibroblastic spindle cells with well-formed woven bone trabeculae. What is the most common genetic molecular abnormality associated with this tumor?

. EXT1 mutation
. t(11;22) translocation
. Amplification of MDM2 and CDK4
. t(X;18) translocation
. GNAS1 mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Amplification of MDM2 and CDK4


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for a parosteal osteosarcoma, typically presenting as a surface lesion on the posterior distal femur with a radiolucent 'string sign' representing unmineralized periosteum. It is a low-grade surface osteosarcoma. Molecularly, it is characterized by supernumerary ring chromosomes and amplification of the 12q13-15 region, which contains the MDM2 and CDK4 genes. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma, t(X;18) in synovial sarcoma, and GNAS1 mutations in fibrous dysplasia.

Question 2379

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

Which of the following radiographic and advanced imaging features is the hallmark 'classic' presentation of a dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma?

. Endosteal scalloping of less than 1/3 of the cortical thickness
. Popcorn calcifications confined purely within the medullary canal
. A bimorphic appearance with a radiolucent, non-mineralized soft tissue mass adjacent to a heavily calcified intraosseous lesion
. Concentric expansion of the bony cortex without cortical breach or soft tissue extension
. Intralesional rings and arcs of calcification without any lytic component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A bimorphic appearance with a radiolucent, non-mineralized soft tissue mass adjacent to a heavily calcified intraosseous lesion


Explanation

Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma is a highly malignant variant where a low-grade cartilaginous tumor abruptly transitions into a high-grade, non-cartilaginous sarcoma (e.g., osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma). Radiographically, this produces a classic 'bimorphic' appearance: a well-mineralized, classic low-grade intramedullary chondrosarcoma with an adjacent, sharply demarcated, radiolucent lytic destructive mass that often breaks through the cortex to form a non-mineralized soft tissue mass.

Question 2380

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with a permeative lytic lesion in the femoral diaphysis with an associated soft tissue mass. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells. Cytogenetic analysis is most likely to show which of the following translocations?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q34;q11)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is classically associated with the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma. t(12;16) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma. t(2;13) is seen in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. t(9;22) is the Philadelphia chromosome (CML).