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Question 801

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 72-year-old man with a history of an enlarging skull and bowing of his long bones presents with severe, progressive right hip pain. Radiographs show mixed lytic and sclerotic changes in the hemipelvis with cortical destruction and an expansile soft tissue mass. What is the most likely underlying condition predisposing him to this malignancy?

. Fibrous dysplasia
. Paget's disease of bone
. Enchondromatosis
. Osteogenesis imperfecta
. Osteopetrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Paget's disease of bone


Explanation

Secondary osteosarcoma typically occurs in older adults, most commonly arising in the setting of Paget's disease of bone or prior radiation therapy. Pagetoid osteosarcoma carries a significantly worse prognosis compared to primary conventional osteosarcoma.

Question 802

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 16-year-old boy presents with an enlarging mass on the anterior aspect of his mid-tibia. Radiographs demonstrate a broad-based, surface lesion with a sunburst appearance and no medullary involvement. Histology reveals a predominantly chondroblastic matrix with intermediate-grade atypia. What is the diagnosis?

. Parosteal osteosarcoma
. Periosteal osteosarcoma
. Osteochondroma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Periosteal osteosarcoma


Explanation

Periosteal osteosarcoma is an intermediate-grade surface tumor that typically arises on the diaphysis of long bones, most often the anterior tibia. It is predominantly chondroblastic histologically, distinguishing it from the fibroblastic, low-grade parosteal osteosarcoma.

Question 803

Topic: Bone Tumors

The standard neoadjuvant chemotherapy regimen for conventional high-grade osteosarcoma typically includes methotrexate, doxorubicin, and cisplatin. What is the primary antineoplastic mechanism of action of cisplatin?

. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibition
. Topoisomerase II inhibition
. Microtubule stabilization
. DNA cross-linking
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibition

Correct Answer & Explanation

. DNA cross-linking


Explanation

Cisplatin is an alkylating-like platinum compound that forms intra- and inter-strand DNA cross-links, preventing DNA replication and leading to apoptosis. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, while doxorubicin inhibits topoisomerase II.

Question 804

Topic: Bone Tumors

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy has significantly improved survival rates in patients with conventional high-grade osteosarcoma. Which of the following regimens represents the standard first-line combination therapy?

. Vincristine, Doxorubicin, and Cyclophosphamide
. High-dose Methotrexate, Doxorubicin, and Cisplatin
. Ifosfamide and Etoposide
. Paclitaxel and Carboplatin
. Gemcitabine and Docetaxel

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High-dose Methotrexate, Doxorubicin, and Cisplatin


Explanation

The standard neoadjuvant chemotherapy regimen for conventional osteosarcoma is the MAP regimen. This consists of high-dose Methotrexate, Adriamycin (Doxorubicin), and Cisplatin.

Question 805

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 70-year-old male with a 20-year history of Paget's disease of bone develops acute, severe pain and rapid swelling in his right proximal femur. Radiographs show a new destructive lytic lesion with cortical breakthrough. What is the most likely etiology?

. Chondrosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma
. Multiple myeloma
. Secondary osteosarcoma
. Fibrosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Secondary osteosarcoma


Explanation

Osteosarcoma developing in older adults is often secondary to an underlying condition such as Paget's disease or prior radiation. Pagetic osteosarcoma carries a much poorer prognosis compared to primary conventional osteosarcoma in youths.

Question 806

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 20-year-old female presents with a palpable mass on the anterior midshaft of her tibia. Radiographs show a broad-based surface lesion with a sunburst 'hair-on-end' periosteal reaction. There is no medullary involvement. Biopsy reveals an intermediate-grade chondroblastic matrix. What is the diagnosis?

. Periosteal osteosarcoma
. Parosteal osteosarcoma
. Osteoid osteoma
. Chondromyxoid fibroma
. High-grade surface osteosarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Periosteal osteosarcoma


Explanation

Periosteal osteosarcoma typically presents as a diaphyseal surface lesion with a perpendicular ('hair-on-end') periosteal reaction. It is pathologically distinguished by its intermediate-grade, predominantly chondroblastic histology.

Question 807

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 14-year-old boy presents with progressive, non-mechanical knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate a mixed sclerotic and lytic lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis with a Codman's triangle and sunburst periosteal reaction. Which of the following MRI sequences is most critical for surgical planning of the resection?

. T1-weighted sagittal sequence of the entire femur
. Axial T2-weighted sequence of the chest
. T2-weighted axial sequence of the contralateral limb
. Dynamic contrast-enhanced MRI of the knee
. STIR sequence of the pelvis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. T1-weighted sagittal sequence of the entire femur


Explanation

A T1-weighted or STIR longitudinal MRI of the entire involved bone is essential to identify "skip lesions" within the medullary canal, which alters the surgical resection margin. Skip metastases occur in up to 25% of osteosarcoma cases and portend a worse prognosis.

Question 808

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 15-year-old boy with conventional high-grade osteosarcoma of the proximal tibia is undergoing neoadjuvant MAP chemotherapy (Methotrexate, Doxorubicin, Cisplatin). He suddenly develops dyspnea and bilateral lower extremity edema. Echocardiography shows a severely reduced ejection fraction. Which chemotherapeutic agent is most likely responsible for this complication?

. Methotrexate
. Doxorubicin
. Cisplatin
. Ifosfamide
. Vincristine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Doxorubicin


Explanation

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) is an anthracycline whose primary dose-limiting toxicity is irreversible dilated cardiomyopathy. Cisplatin is known for ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, while methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity and mucositis.

Question 809

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 65-year-old male presents with severe back pain. Imaging shows a pathological compression fracture of L4. Laboratory tests reveal hypercalcemia, anemia, and an elevated total serum protein. Which diagnostic test is most essential to confirm the underlying diagnosis and identify the specific protein abnormality?

. Technetium-99m bone scintigraphy
. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) and immunofixation
. Measurement of serum alkaline phosphatase
. MRI of the lumbar spine without contrast
. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) and immunofixation


Explanation

The clinical presentation is highly suspicious for multiple myeloma. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) with immunofixation is essential to identify and characterize the monoclonal immunoglobulin (M-spike) produced by the neoplastic plasma cells.

Question 810

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 16-year-old male complains of right thigh pain that is worse at night and dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Imaging shows a cortical thickening with a 7 mm radiolucent nidus in the femoral diaphysis. Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is planned. What is the most critical anatomical consideration when performing RFA for this lesion?

. Ensuring the lesion is at least 3 cm away from the physis
. Proximity of the nidus to major neurovascular structures (must be > 1 cm away)
. Avoiding the use of a cooling cannula
. Performing the procedure under local anesthesia only
. Ensuring complete removal of the sclerotic bone halo

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximity of the nidus to major neurovascular structures (must be > 1 cm away)


Explanation

Radiofrequency ablation generates heat up to 90 degrees Celsius. It is relatively contraindicated if the nidus is less than 1 cm from major nerves or vessels due to the high risk of thermal injury.

Question 811

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 65-year-old male presents with generalized bone pain, severe fatigue, and a large radiolucent lesion in the proximal femur. Laboratory workup shows hypercalcemia, normocytic anemia, and an M-spike on serum protein electrophoresis. Which distinct radiographic characteristic of the bone lesion is classically associated with the underlying pathophysiology of this disease?

. Dense sclerotic borders surrounding the central lucency.
. 'Punched-out' lytic lesions totally lacking reactive sclerosis.
. Extensive periosteal sunburst reaction with Codman's triangle.
. A small radiolucent nidus surrounded by thick cortical thickening.
. The 'fallen leaf' sign within the medullary canal.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 'Punched-out' lytic lesions totally lacking reactive sclerosis.


Explanation

Multiple myeloma classically presents with multiple 'punched-out' lytic lesions that lack a reactive sclerotic border. This occurs because myeloma cells secrete factors (like DKK1) that profoundly inhibit osteoblast activity while stimulating osteoclasts, preventing reactive bone formation.

Question 812

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 12-year-old girl presents with a limp. Radiographs demonstrate an expansile, ground-glass lesion in the proximal femur with a shepherd's crook deformity. She is also noted to have precocious puberty and irregular café-au-lait spots. What is the underlying molecular defect?
. Mutation in the GNAS1 gene resulting in decreased intracellular cAMP
. Mutation in the GNAS1 gene resulting in continuously elevated intracellular cAMP
. Mutation in the EXT1 gene
. Mutation in the NF1 gene
. Mutation in the PTHrP receptor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mutation in the GNAS1 gene resulting in continuously elevated intracellular cAMP


Explanation

McCune-Albright syndrome (polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, endocrine abnormalities, and "Coast of Maine" café-au-lait spots) is caused by a post-zygotic activating mutation in the GNAS1 gene. This leads to constitutive activation of adenylate cyclase and elevated intracellular cAMP.

Question 813

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 12-year-old girl is evaluated for precocious puberty and large café-au-lait spots with irregular, "coast of Maine" borders. Radiographs reveal polyostotic radiolucent bone lesions with a "ground-glass" matrix. What is the underlying genetic mutation?
. Activating mutation in GNAS1
. Loss of function in NF1
. Mutation in EXT1
. Mutation in SH3BP2
. Mutation in COMP

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Activating mutation in GNAS1


Explanation

McCune-Albright syndrome consists of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots, and endocrine abnormalities (like precocious puberty). It is caused by a sporadic, post-zygotic activating mutation in the GNAS1 gene.

Question 814

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 12-year-old girl sustains a low-energy proximal femur fracture. Radiographs show a distinct "ground-glass" lytic lesion in the proximal femur with a shepherd's crook deformity. She has several large, irregular hyperpigmented macules on her back and a history of precocious puberty. The underlying mutation for this syndrome results in abnormal function of which of the following?
. Gi-protein coupled receptor
. Gs-alpha protein subunit
. Tyrosine kinase receptor
. Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway
. RANKL expression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gs-alpha protein subunit


Explanation

This is McCune-Albright syndrome, featuring polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots, and endocrinopathies. It is caused by an activating post-zygotic mutation in the GNAS1 gene, which encodes the Gs-alpha protein subunit, leading to excessive intracellular cAMP.

Question 815

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 4-year-old boy presents with a painless, asymmetric, hard mass on the medial aspect of his right ankle. Radiographs show an irregular, lobulated, ossifying mass arising from the medial aspect of the distal tibial epiphysis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
. Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica (Trevor disease)
. Osteochondroma
. Chondroblastoma
. Blount disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica (Trevor disease)


Explanation

Trevor disease (dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica) involves asymmetrical cartilage overgrowth at the epiphysis, most commonly affecting the medial side of the knee or ankle in young children.

Question 816

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 4-year-old boy presents with a painless, asymmetric swelling on the medial aspect of his ankle. Radiographs show an irregular, ossified mass arising from the medial epiphysis of the distal tibia. Histologically, the lesion strongly resembles an osteochondroma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Multiple hereditary exostoses
. Chondrodysplasia punctata
. Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica (Trevor disease)
. Ollier disease
. Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica (Trevor disease)


Explanation

Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica (Trevor disease) is characterized by an osteochondroma-like outgrowth arising from the epiphysis, most commonly on the medial side of the knee or ankle. It results in asymmetric epiphyseal enlargement and joint deformity.

Question 817

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 48-year-old male presents with severe right thigh pain. Plain radiographs appear largely unremarkable except for a very subtle permeative radiolucency in the diaphysis. MRI demonstrates extensive marrow replacement and a massive soft tissue mass surrounding the bone. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoid osteoma
. Primary lymphoma of bone
. Chondrosarcoma
. Parosteal osteosarcoma
. Fibrous dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary lymphoma of bone


Explanation

The combination of minimal cortical destruction on plain radiographs with an extensive soft tissue mass on MRI is a hallmark presentation of primary lymphoma of bone. The tumor permeates through the Haversian canals without completely destroying the cortex.

Question 818

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 6-year-old girl is noted to have early breast development and vaginal bleeding. She complains of left hip pain, and radiographs reveal a ground-glass, expansile lytic lesion in the proximal femur with a "shepherd's crook" deformity. Physical exam reveals large, irregular hyperpigmented skin macules. A mutation in which of the following genes is responsible for this condition?

. EXT1
. FGFR3
. GNAS1
. PTPN11
. COL1A1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS1


Explanation

This patient has McCune-Albright syndrome, characterized by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, and cafe-au-lait spots. It is caused by an activating post-zygotic mutation in the GNAS1 gene, resulting in persistent adenylyl cyclase activity.

Question 819

Topic: Bone Tumors

Which histologic feature is considered the hallmark of a chondromyxoid fibroma, aiding in differentiating it from chondrosarcoma?

. Abundant delicate 'chicken-wire' calcifications
. Lobular architecture with hypercellular margins and hypocellular centers
. Diffuse permeation of host bone trabeculae
. Sheets of uniform small round blue cells
. Presence of anaplastic chondrocytes with atypical mitoses

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lobular architecture with hypercellular margins and hypocellular centers


Explanation

Chondromyxoid fibroma exhibits a distinct pseudo-lobular pattern with central hypocellular myxoid tissue and hypercellular peripheries containing multinucleated giant cells. Chondrosarcomas typically lack this organized lobular zonation and show permeation of native bone.

Question 820

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 45-year-old male completes definitive radiation therapy for primary diffuse large B-cell lymphoma of the femoral diaphysis. Which of the following is the most significant orthopedic complication directly associated with treating appendicular primary bone lymphoma exclusively with local high-dose radiation?

. Secondary osteosarcoma within 1 year
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Pathologic fracture
. Chronic osteomyelitis
. Rapid systemic metastasis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pathologic fracture


Explanation

Radiation therapy alone for primary bone lymphoma in weight-bearing bones carries a high risk of subsequent pathologic fracture due to radiation-induced osteonecrosis and delayed bone remodeling. This has shifted modern paradigms toward combined chemoradiation or prophylactic stabilization.