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Question 581

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 9-year-old boy with multiple café-au-lait macules with irregular borders ('coast of Maine') presents with a limp. Radiographs demonstrate a classic 'shepherd’s crook' deformity of the proximal femur with a ground-glass appearance of the medullary canal. The fundamental cellular defect in this condition leads to which intracellular abnormality?
. Decreased intracellular calcium
. Constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase leading to elevated cAMP
. Inhibition of the mTOR pathway
. Excessive accumulation of glycogen
. Defective assembly of type I collagen triple helices

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase leading to elevated cAMP


Explanation

McCune-Albright syndrome features polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots, and endocrinopathies. It is caused by a somatic activating mutation in GNAS1, causing constitutive adenylyl cyclase activity and elevated intracellular cAMP, impairing normal osteoblast differentiation.

Question 582

Topic: Bone Tumors

An 8-year-old boy presents with mild right arm pain after throwing a ball. Radiographs reveal a central, lytic, well-circumscribed lesion in the proximal humeral metaphysis with a "fallen leaf" sign. Assuming the fracture has healed and the lesion remains asymptomatic, what is the most appropriate natural history expectation and management?

. Progression to osteosarcoma requires en bloc resection
. High risk of malignant transformation dictates radiation therapy
. It is a unicameral bone cyst (UBC) that will likely resolve by skeletal maturity; observation is indicated
. It is an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC) requiring immediate intralesional curettage
. Progressive diaphyseal expansion requiring prophylactic internal fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Progression to osteosarcoma requires en bloc resection


Explanation

The "fallen leaf" (or fallen fragment) sign is pathognomonic for a Unicameral Bone Cyst (UBC). Asymptomatic UBCs typically migrate away from the physis into the diaphysis and spontaneously resolve after skeletal maturity.

Question 583

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 16-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of well-localized mid-back pain that is worse at night and dramatically improves with ibuprofen. Imaging reveals a 1.2 cm sclerotic lesion with a central lucent nidus in the left lamina of T8. What is the most appropriate definitive management if conservative measures are poorly tolerated?

. Wide en bloc resection and fusion
. External beam radiation therapy
. Computed tomography-guided radiofrequency ablation
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by marginal resection
. Intralesional corticosteroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide en bloc resection and fusion


Explanation

The clinical presentation and imaging (lesion < 2 cm, posterior elements, nighttime pain relieved by NSAIDs) are classic for an osteoid osteoma of the spine. When medical management (NSAIDs) is poorly tolerated or fails, CT-guided radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is the minimally invasive treatment of choice, provided the nidus is safely distanced from the spinal cord or nerve roots.

Question 584

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 22-year-old male presents with dull, aching pain in his mid-back that does not completely resolve with NSAIDs. Imaging reveals a 2.8 cm radiolucent lesion in the posterior elements of the L3 vertebra with an surrounding zone of reactive sclerosis. Histological evaluation shows a nidus of irregular, interconnected woven bone trabeculae lined by prominent osteoblasts, highly vascular loose connective tissue, and no atypical cells. Based on clinical and pathologic features, what is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoblastoma
. Osteoid osteoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Chondroblastoma
. Giant cell tumor of bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoblastoma


Explanation

The histology described (woven bone trabeculae lined by osteoblasts in a vascular stroma) is identical for both osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma. However, the distinction is made clinically and radiographically: osteoblastomas are larger (> 2.0 cm), often have a less dramatic response to NSAIDs/aspirin, and have a predilection for the posterior elements of the spine.

Question 585

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 15-year-old male undergoes curettage of a 3 cm lytic lesion located exclusively in the greater tuberosity epiphysis of the proximal humerus. Histological analysis reveals sheets of mononuclear cells with characteristic nuclear grooves, prominent eosinophilic cytoplasm, and focal areas of fine, intercellular pericellular calcifications. Molecular testing of this lesion is most likely to reveal a mutation in which of the following genes?

. GNAS
. H3F3A (H3.3 K36M)
. H3F3A (H3.3 G34W)
. EXT1
. TP53

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

The lesion is a Chondroblastoma (epiphyseal location in a teenager, mononuclear cells with grooved nuclei, and "chicken-wire" pericellular calcification). Almost all chondroblastomas harbor a highly specific mutation in the H3F3A gene, specifically an H3.3 K36M substitution. A different substitution in the same gene, H3.3 G34W, is characteristic of Giant Cell Tumor of Bone. GNAS is associated with fibrous dysplasia. EXT1/EXT2 with osteochondromas.

Question 586

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 55-year-old male is referred for an asymptomatic calcified lesion discovered incidentally on a radiograph of his proximal humerus. The radiologist suggests distinguishing between an enchondroma and a low-grade (Grade 1) central chondrosarcoma. Which of the following MRI or radiographic findings is the most reliable indicator favoring a diagnosis of low-grade chondrosarcoma over enchondroma?

. Popcorn-like intralesional calcifications
. Metaphyseal-diaphyseal location
. Endosteal scalloping greater than 2/3 of the cortical thickness
. Lesion size less than 4 cm
. Lobular high signal intensity on T2-weighted MRI sequences

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popcorn-like intralesional calcifications


Explanation

Differentiating enchondroma from low-grade central chondrosarcoma is notoriously difficult. Radiographic features that suggest malignancy (low-grade chondrosarcoma) include deep endosteal scalloping (>2/3 of the cortical thickness), cortical thickening, soft tissue extension, and pain (clinical feature). Both lesions can have popcorn calcifications, metaphyseal/diaphyseal locations, and lobular T2 hyperintensity. Size >5 cm favors malignancy, so <4 cm favors enchondroma.

Question 587

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 15-year-old patient with multiple enchondromatosis presents with extensive cartilaginous lesions primarily localized to one side of the body, sparing the soft tissues. Recent literature has identified that the pathogenesis of this syndrome (Ollier disease) is most closely linked to a somatic mosaic mutation in which of the following genes?

. EXT1
. IDH1 or IDH2
. GNAS
. PTPN11
. FGFR3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. EXT1


Explanation

Ollier disease (multiple enchondromatosis) and Maffucci syndrome (multiple enchondromatosis with soft tissue hemangiomas) are both non-hereditary somatic mosaic disorders. They have been shown to be heavily driven by mutations in the isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 or 2 (IDH1 or IDH2) genes. EXT1 is associated with Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (osteochondromas). GNAS is associated with Fibrous Dysplasia (McCune-Albright). FGFR3 is associated with achondroplasia.

Question 588

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 10-year-old boy presents with thigh pain after a minor fall. Radiographs show a transverse fracture through a purely lytic, centrally located metadiaphyseal lesion of the femur with cortical thinning. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

. Osteosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma
. Unicameral bone cyst
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Non-ossifying fibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

A unicameral (simple) bone cyst is classically a centrally located, completely lytic, metadiaphyseal lesion that commonly presents with a pathologic fracture in children. In contrast, aneurysmal bone cysts are typically eccentric and highly expansile.

Question 589

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 10-year-old girl is brought in for a mild limp. Radiographs show a centrally located, lytic lesion in the proximal humerus metaphysis with a 'fallen leaf' sign. She has minimal pain after a minor fall. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Non-ossifying fibroma
. Unicameral bone cyst
. Fibrous dysplasia
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aneurysmal bone cyst


Explanation

The 'fallen leaf' or 'fallen fragment' sign is pathognomonic for a Unicameral Bone Cyst (UBC) that has sustained a pathologic fracture. A piece of cortical bone breaks off and settles at the dependent portion of the fluid-filled cyst.

Question 590

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 2-year-old girl presents with a limp. Radiographs reveal a lytic lesion in the proximal femur with a "ground-glass" appearance and a coxa vara deformity. The mother has a history of café-au-lait spots. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Unicameral bone cyst
. Non-ossifying fibroma
. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
. Eosinophilic granuloma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia


Explanation

A "ground-glass" lytic lesion causing deformity (like coxa vara or shepherd's crook) is characteristic of fibrous dysplasia. The presence of café-au-lait spots suggests McCune-Albright syndrome, which is associated with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.

Question 591

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 16-year-old boy presents with severe right thigh pain that is distinctly worse at night and dramatically relieved by taking ibuprofen. Radiographs reveal a cortical thickening with a small 8 mm radiolucent nidus in the diaphysis of the femur. If a trial of conservative medical management fails, what is the most appropriate definitive treatment?

. Wide surgical resection
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by limb salvage
. Radiofrequency ablation (RFA)
. Amputation
. External beam radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide surgical resection


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma, characterized by intense night pain relieved by NSAIDs (due to high levels of prostaglandins), and a small (<1.5 cm) radiolucent nidus surrounded by reactive sclerosis. If conservative management fails or the patient wishes for definitive treatment, CT-guided Radiofrequency Ablation (RFA) is the standard of care with excellent success rates.

Question 592

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 16-year-old male presents with severe right thigh pain that is uniquely worse at night and dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs demonstrate a radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense reactive sclerosis in the proximal femur. Which of the following inflammatory mediators is produced in high levels by this lesion and is responsible for the classic clinical presentation?

. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Matrix metalloproteinase-9 (MMP-9)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. The nidus of an osteoid osteoma produces high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), which causes the characteristic night pain that is rapidly alleviated by nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

Question 593

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 55-year-old male presents with a painful mass in his proximal humerus. Plain radiographs demonstrate an intramedullary lytic lesion with cortical destruction and an internal matrix mineralization pattern described as "rings and arcs" or "popcorn-like."

This matrix pattern is most characteristic of which type of tissue?

. Osteoid matrix
. Fibrous matrix
. Chondroid matrix
. Myxoid matrix
. Amyloid matrix

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoid matrix


Explanation

The classic "rings and arcs", "stippled", or "popcorn" calcification pattern on radiographs is highly specific for chondroid (cartilaginous) matrix. In an older patient with a destructive lesion and this matrix, primary chondrosarcoma is the leading diagnosis. Osteoid matrix typically appears as amorphous, cloud-like, or ivory-like opacities.

Question 594

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 10-year-old boy presents with multiple cafe-au-lait spots, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, and precocious puberty. What is the underlying genetic mutation associated with this syndrome?

. GNAS1 gene activating mutation
. NF1 gene deletion
. FGFR3 gene point mutation
. EXT1 gene mutation
. COL1A1 gene mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS1 gene activating mutation


Explanation

The classic triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait spots, and precocious puberty describes McCune-Albright syndrome. It is caused by an activating post-zygotic somatic mutation in the GNAS1 gene.

Question 595

Topic: Bone Tumors

Which of the following histologic variants of osteosarcoma typically carries the most favorable prognosis?

. Telangiectatic
. Parosteal
. Periosteal
. Classic intramedullary
. Small cell

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Telangiectatic


Explanation

Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade surface lesion that carries the best prognosis among osteosarcoma variants. Telangiectatic and classic intramedullary variants are high-grade and have a significantly poorer prognosis.

Question 596

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old male complains of dull, aching back pain that is notably worse at night and dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs and CT show a 2.5 cm radiolucent nidus in the posterior elements of L4. Histologically, the lesion consists of woven bone trabeculae lined by prominent osteoblasts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Osteosarcoma
. Chondroblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoid osteoma


Explanation

While the clinical presentation (night pain relieved by NSAIDs) and histology are identical to an osteoid osteoma, the size of the nidus is the distinguishing factor. An osteoid osteoma has a nidus typically < 1.5 cm. A lesion larger than 1.5-2.0 cm with similar histology is classified as an osteoblastoma, which also frequently occurs in the posterior elements of the spine.

Question 597

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 65-year-old male presents with deep bone pain in his proximal femur. Blood work reveals hypercalcemia and mild renal insufficiency. Radiographs show a large solitary lytic lesion in the subtrochanteric region without a sclerotic rim. What is the most likely primary diagnosis?

. Osteosarcoma
. Chondrosarcoma
. Multiple Myeloma
. Ewing sarcoma
. Paget's disease of bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

Multiple myeloma is the most common primary bone malignancy in adults over 40. The classic presentation involves lytic bone lesions ("punched-out"), hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, and anemia, known collectively as the CRAB criteria.

Question 598

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 22-year-old male presents with dull, aching thoracic back pain that is not significantly relieved by NSAIDs. CT imaging demonstrates a 3.5 cm expansile, lytic lesion in the posterior elements of T11 with a thin sclerotic rim. Histology reveals interlacing trabeculae of woven bone lined by prominent osteoblasts in a highly vascular stroma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Giant cell tumor
. Chondromyxoid fibroma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoid osteoma


Explanation

The clinical presentation, anatomic location (posterior elements of the spine), size (>2 cm), and histologic appearance (woven bone, prominent osteoblasts, vascular stroma) are diagnostic of osteoblastoma. Osteoid osteoma shares identical histology but is defined clinically and radiographically as being smaller (typically <1.5-2.0 cm) and the pain is classically dramatically relieved by NSAIDs.

Question 599

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old male presents with severe, progressive mid-tibial pain that is worse at night and dramatically relieved by over-the-counter ibuprofen. Radiographs demonstrate a diaphyseal cortical thickening with a small radiolucent nidus. What is the primary mechanism by which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) relieve pain in this condition?

. Inhibition of histamine release from local mast cells
. Inhibition of high levels of prostaglandin E2 production by the nidus
. Reversal of local tissue ischemia
. Reduction of mechanical expansion of the periosteum
. Suppression of an inflammatory cytokine cascade from lymphocytes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inhibition of histamine release from local mast cells


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. The dramatic pain relief with NSAIDs is highly characteristic, as the central nidus produces large amounts of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), which is directly inhibited by cyclooxygenase blockers.

Question 600

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 24-year-old male complains of severe dull pain in his thoracic spine that is not reliably relieved by NSAIDs. CT scan shows a 2.5 cm radiolucent nidus with posterior element expansion. Histology shows interlacing trabeculae of woven bone lined by prominent osteoblasts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Osteosarcoma
. Chondroblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoid osteoma


Explanation

Osteoblastoma is histologically identical to osteoid osteoma but is clinically differentiated by a nidus size >2 cm, less reliable response to NSAIDs, and progressive growth. It frequently involves the posterior elements of the spine.