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Question 381

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 12-year-old boy presents with mild knee pain and swelling after a minor twist. Radiographs reveal an eccentric, expansile, lytic metaphyseal lesion in the proximal tibia. MRI demonstrates multiple fluid-fluid levels within the lesion. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis of a primary aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Which of the following genetic alterations is most specific to the pathogenesis of this lesion?

. GNAS mutation
. USP6 gene rearrangement
. EXT1 mutation
. p53 mutation
. BRAF V600E mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6 gene rearrangement


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are true neoplastic processes driven by specific genetic rearrangements, most commonly involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17p13. This translocation leads to the upregulation of USP6, a ubiquitin-specific protease, driving the formation of the cystic lesion. GNAS mutations are associated with fibrous dysplasia. EXT1 and EXT2 mutations cause hereditary multiple exostoses. BRAF V600E mutations are commonly associated with Langerhans cell histiocytosis and occasionally non-ossifying fibromas.

Question 382

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 68-year-old man presents with generalized fatigue, severe lower back pain, and a recent laboratory finding of hypercalcemia. Radiographs show multiple punched-out lytic lesions in his skull and pelvis. Routine laboratory tests reveal a mild normocytic anemia and elevated serum creatinine. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step to confirm the suspected underlying malignancy?

. Whole-body technetium-99m bone scan
. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) and immunofixation
. Serum alkaline phosphatase level
. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test
. Flow cytometry of the peripheral blood

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) and immunofixation


Explanation

The patient's presentation of hypercalcemia, renal dysfunction (elevated creatinine), anemia, and lytic bone lesions comprises the classic 'CRAB' criteria for multiple myeloma. To confirm the diagnosis, identifying and quantifying the monoclonal protein (M-spike) is essential. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) with immunofixation, along with urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP), is the most appropriate diagnostic step. Technetium-99m bone scans rely on osteoblastic activity and often yield false-negative results in multiple myeloma, which is characterized by purely osteoclastic bone destruction. Low-dose whole-body CT, MRI, or PET-CT are the preferred imaging modalities.

Question 383

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of right thigh pain that is worse at night and relieved significantly by ibuprofen. A CT scan of the femur is shown below.

It reveals a 7-mm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerotic bone in the femoral diaphysis. If a molecular analysis of the resected tissue were performed, the lesion would most likely demonstrate high levels of which of the following?

. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2)
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2)


Explanation

The presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. Osteoid osteomas characteristically secrete high levels of prostaglandins, mediated by robust expression of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) within the nidus. This accounts for the intense, night-predominant pain that typically responds dramatically to NSAIDs or salicylates.

Question 384

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old male presents with dull, aching thigh pain that worsens at night and is completely relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs and a CT scan reveal a 1 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerotic bone in the femoral diaphysis. What is the primary underlying biochemical mechanism for the characteristic pain pattern associated with this lesion?

. Compression of adjacent peripheral nerves
. Localized production of inflammatory cytokines (TNF-alpha)
. Microfractures in the surrounding sclerotic bone
. High levels of prostaglandins within the nidus
. Rapid periosteal expansion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High levels of prostaglandins within the nidus


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. The intense night pain, which is exquisitely sensitive to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or aspirin, is caused by the production of high levels of prostaglandins (specifically PGE2) by the osteoblasts within the central nidus. This local prostaglandin storm causes vasodilation and nerve irritation.

Question 385

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for a leg deformity and a limp. Radiographs of the proximal femur show an expansile, medullary lesion with a 'ground-glass' appearance and a Shepherd's crook deformity. Physical examination reveals a large café-au-lait spot on her back with irregular 'Coast of Maine' borders. Which of the following gene mutations is the primary cause of her condition?
. NF1
. GNAS1
. EXT1
. FGFR3
. RUNX2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS1


Explanation

This patient has McCune-Albright syndrome, which consists of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots with irregular borders, and endocrine hyperfunction (e.g., precocious puberty). The underlying cause is an activating post-zygotic somatic mutation in the GNAS1 gene, which encodes the alpha subunit of the Gs protein. This leads to constitutive activation of adenylate cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP, disrupting normal bone remodeling and melanocyte function.

Question 386

Topic: Bone Tumors



Fibrous dysplasia is a benign fibro-osseous bone lesion that can present as a solitary lesion or as part of a more complex syndrome. This condition is fundamentally caused by a somatic activating mutation in which of the following genes?

. GNAS
. EXT1
. RB1
. FGFR3
. COL1A1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

Fibrous dysplasia results from a somatic activating missense mutation in the GNAS gene, which leads to constitutive activation of Gs-alpha and overproduction of intracellular cAMP. When associated with cafe-au-lait macules and precocious puberty, it is termed McCune-Albright syndrome.

Question 387

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 65-year-old woman presents with diffuse skeletal pain and a pathological fracture of the proximal femur. Laboratories reveal anemia, hypercalcemia, and an elevated M-spike on serum protein electrophoresis. Which of the following radiographic findings is most characteristic of her condition?

. Punched-out lytic lesions without reactive sclerosis
. Dense blastic lesions of the axial skeleton
. Extensive periosteal "sunburst" reaction
. Epiphyseal lytic lesions with a sclerotic rim
. Ground-glass matrix in the medullary canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Punched-out lytic lesions without reactive sclerosis


Explanation

Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell dyscrasia characterized radiographically by sharply demarcated, "punched-out" lytic lesions with no surrounding reactive bone sclerosis. This is due to profound osteoclast activation and osteoblast inhibition.

Question 388

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old man complains of localized right tibial pain that is worse at night and dramatically relieved by NSAIDs.

Imaging reveals a small radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense reactive sclerosis. The dramatic pain relief provided by NSAIDs in this condition is due to the local inhibition of which of the following?

. Substance P
. Prostaglandin E2
. Interleukin-1
. Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha
. Bradykinin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2


Explanation

Osteoid osteomas uniquely secrete high levels of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) due to increased cyclooxygenase (COX) expression within the nidus. NSAIDs inhibit COX, effectively reducing PGE2 levels and providing the characteristic dramatic pain relief.

Question 389

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 9-year-old boy sustains a pathologic fracture through a centrally located, lytic bone lesion in the proximal humerus. The lesion exhibits the 'fallen leaf sign' on radiographs. After the fracture heals, the lesion persists. What is the best initial surgical management?

. En bloc resection and structural allograft
. Intralesional steroid or bone marrow aspirate injection
. Curettage and cementing
. Wide excision
. Radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intralesional steroid or bone marrow aspirate injection


Explanation

The 'fallen leaf sign' is pathognomonic for a unicameral (simple) bone cyst. After a pathologic fracture heals, persistent active cysts are typically treated with less invasive methods first, such as injections of steroids or bone marrow aspirate.

Question 390

Topic: Bone Tumors

An 18-year-old male presents with a painful clunking and grating sensation beneath his right scapula with overhead movement. Physical therapy and injections have failed to provide relief. A CT scan of the chest and shoulder reveals a bony exostosis arising from the ventral surface of the scapula. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

. Chondrosarcoma
. Elastofibroma dorsi
. Osteochondroma
. Osteoid osteoma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteochondroma


Explanation

Snapping scapula syndrome in a young patient is commonly caused by an osteochondroma on the ventral surface of the scapula. Elastofibroma dorsi can also cause snapping but usually presents as a soft tissue mass in older patients (typically >50 years) located between the lower scapula and chest wall.

Question 391

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for a Shepherd's crook deformity of the proximal femur. Radiographs show a ground-glass appearance of the medullary canal. This condition is associated with a postzygotic somatic mutation in which of the following genes?

. EXT1
. GNAS
. RB1
. PTEN
. NF1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

Fibrous dysplasia is a developmental anomaly of bone caused by a somatic activating mutation in the GNAS gene. This leads to increased intracellular cAMP and impaired differentiation of bone-forming cells.

Question 392

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 12-year-old girl has an expansile, eccentric lytic lesion in the proximal tibia. MRI reveals multiple fluid-fluid levels. Primary aneurysmal bone cysts are genetically characterized by a rearrangement involving which of the following genes?

. USP6
. GNAS
. EXT1
. FLI1
. TP53

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts are considered true neoplasms driven by rearrangements of the USP6 gene on chromosome 17. This distinguishes them from secondary aneurysmal bone cysts, which lack this genetic mutation.

Question 393

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 22-year-old male presents with severe nocturnal anterior thigh pain that is reliably relieved by oral ibuprofen. Radiographs demonstrate a 1-cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by thick cortical sclerosis in the proximal femoral diaphysis. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this lesion?

. Wide en bloc resection
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by resection
. Radiofrequency ablation
. Intralesional curettage and polymethylmethacrylate cementation
. Indefinite observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radiofrequency ablation


Explanation

The clinical history and radiographic appearance are classic for an osteoid osteoma. Percutaneous radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is currently the standard of care, offering a minimally invasive, definitive cure with low morbidity.

Question 394

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for a leg length discrepancy and a "shepherd's crook" deformity of her proximal femur. Radiographs reveal an intramedullary lesion with a hazy, "ground-glass" matrix. This disorder is driven by a somatic postzygotic mutation in which of the following genes?

. EXT1
. GNAS
. FGFR3
. COL1A1
. RUNX2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

Fibrous dysplasia is caused by an activating missense mutation in the GNAS gene, which encodes the alpha subunit of the stimulatory G protein (Gs-alpha). This leads to increased intracellular cAMP and abnormal osteoblast differentiation.

Question 395

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 16-year-old boy presents with knee pain. Radiographs reveal an expansile, eccentric lytic lesion in the proximal tibial metaphysis. MRI demonstrates multiple fluid-fluid levels. Genetic analysis of this lesion would most likely reveal an abnormality involving which of the following genes?

. USP6
. GNAS
. EXT1
. RB1
. TP53

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6


Explanation

The imaging findings are classic for an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Primary ABCs are true neoplasms driven by recurrent translocations involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17p13.

Question 396

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 12-year-old boy presents with severe, unrelenting mid-shaft thigh pain that is worse at night and relieved by NSAIDs. Radiographs show a small radiolucent nidus with surrounding dense reactive sclerosis. What is the primary mediator responsible for the nocturnal pain?

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. The nidus secretes high levels of PGE2, which mediates the characteristic night pain that responds well to NSAIDs.

Question 397

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 9-year-old girl presents with a pathologic fracture of her proximal femur. Radiographs demonstrate a "ground-glass" appearance and a Shepherd's crook deformity. She also has irregular café-au-lait spots and precocious puberty. What is the underlying genetic mutation?
. EXT1
. GNAS
. TP53
. RB1
. FGFR3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

This clinical picture describes McCune-Albright syndrome, which features polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, endocrine abnormalities, and café-au-lait spots. It is caused by an activating mutation in the GNAS gene, leading to increased intracellular cAMP.

Question 398

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 12-year-old girl complains of mild localized pain in her proximal humerus. Radiographs demonstrate an expansile, eccentric, multiloculated lucent lesion in the metaphysis. MRI shows multiple fluid-fluid levels. Primary aneurysmal bone cysts are most commonly associated with a rearrangement of which gene?

. GNAS
. EXT1
. USP6
. TP53
. COL1A1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are now recognized as genuine neoplasms driven by USP6 gene rearrangements (typically t(16;17)). This distinguishes primary ABCs from secondary ABCs that arise in preexisting tumors.

Question 399

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old man presents with nocturnal leg pain that is dramatically relieved by NSAIDs. A radiograph and CT scan demonstrate a small intracortical lucency with surrounding sclerosis in the tibial diaphysis.

What is the mechanism of action of the most appropriate minimally invasive treatment for this condition?

. Focal thermal coagulation via alternating current
. Cryoablation using argon gas
. Chemical necrosis via absolute alcohol injection
. Targeted embolization of feeding vessels
. Radiation-induced DNA cross-linking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Focal thermal coagulation via alternating current


Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. Radiofrequency ablation (RFA), which uses alternating current to cause focal thermal coagulation and necrosis, is the minimally invasive treatment of choice.

Question 400

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 12-year-old girl presents with a rapidly expanding, painful mass in her proximal humerus. Radiographs show an expansile, multiloculated radiolucent lesion.

Genetic analysis of the tissue would most likely reveal an upregulation of which of the following?

. USP6
. GNAS
. EXT1
. RUNX2
. COL1A1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6


Explanation

The presentation and imaging are consistent with a primary aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Primary ABCs are true neoplasms characterized by a t(16;17) translocation leading to USP6 gene upregulation.