This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Bone Tumors. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 321
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 22-year-old male presents with chronic, dull back pain that is worsened at night. He reports the pain is poorly relieved by aspirin. Radiographs and CT scan reveal a 2.5 cm radiolucent lesion with a sclerotic margin located in the posterior elements of the L3 vertebra. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoblastoma
Explanation
Osteoblastoma and osteoid osteoma share similar histological features but are differentiated primarily by size and clinical presentation. Osteoblastomas are typically larger than 2.0 cm (while osteoid osteomas are < 1.5 - 2 cm). Osteoblastomas have a strong predilection for the posterior elements of the spine and produce pain that is less characteristically nocturnal and less dramatically responsive to NSAIDs or aspirin compared to osteoid osteoma.
Question 322
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 22-year-old male presents with dull, aching pain in his posterior thoracic spine that is not reliably relieved by NSAIDs. Radiographs and a CT scan reveal a 2.5 cm radiolucent nidus in the right lamina of T8 with surrounding sclerosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoblastoma
Explanation
Both osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma have similar histologic appearances (woven bone, prominent osteoblasts), but they are differentiated primarily by size and clinical presentation. Osteoblastomas are typically > 2 cm (often > 1.5-2.0 cm threshold used), locate commonly in the posterior elements of the spine, and cause dull aching pain that is less likely to have dramatic relief with NSAIDs/aspirin compared to osteoid osteoma (which is < 1.5 cm and classically features severe nocturnal pain dramatically relieved by NSAIDs).
Question 323
Topic: Bone Tumors
In evaluating a 16-year-old male with a newly diagnosed conventional high-grade osteosarcoma of the distal femur, appropriate staging studies are obtained. Among standard laboratory values, which of the following is considered an independent poor prognostic indicator for overall survival?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Explanation
In the staging and risk stratification of osteosarcoma, elevated levels of serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) at the time of diagnosis have been consistently shown in large cooperative group studies (like the European Osteosarcoma Intergroup) to be independent adverse prognostic factors, correlating with a higher risk of metastasis and poorer overall survival.
Question 324
Topic: Bone Tumors
Which of the following clinical or radiographic features most reliably differentiates an osteoblastoma from an osteoid osteoma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Nidus size greater than 2 cm
Explanation
Osteoblastoma and osteoid osteoma are histologically identical, both featuring woven bone lined by prominent osteoblasts. The primary differentiating feature is size; osteoblastomas have a nidus greater than 2 cm (some sources use >1.5 cm), whereas osteoid osteomas are smaller. Additionally, the pain of osteoblastoma is often not predictably relieved by NSAIDs/aspirin, unlike osteoid osteoma.
Question 325
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 25-year-old female presents with a slowly enlarging mass on the posterior aspect of her distal femur. Plain radiographs show a heavily ossified, juxtacortical mass with a broad base on the surface of the bone, and a radiolucent cleft separating portions of the tumor from the underlying cortex. Medullary involvement is minimal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parosteal osteosarcoma
Explanation
Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade surface osteosarcoma typically found on the posterior distal femur. Radiographically, it appears as a heavily ossified mass with a broad base and a characteristic 'string sign' (a radiolucent cleft separating the tumor from the underlying cortex). It is distinct from periosteal osteosarcoma, which has a sunburst or hair-on-end appearance and is more chondroblastic.
Question 326
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 16-year-old boy presents with progressive, nocturnal thigh pain that is rapidly and completely relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs demonstrate a 7 mm radiolucent nidus in the femoral diaphysis surrounded by dense reactive cortical sclerosis. Which inflammatory mediator is found in extraordinarily high concentrations within this nidus, explaining the efficacy of NSAIDs?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
Explanation
The clinical and radiographic presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. The nidus of an osteoid osteoma produces enormous quantities of prostaglandins, particularly Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), at levels 100 to 1,000 times higher than surrounding normal tissue. This massive local PGE2 production lowers the threshold of unmyelinated nerve fibers, causing the severe nocturnal pain. NSAIDs provide dramatic relief by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX), thereby blocking prostaglandin synthesis.
Question 327
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 19-year-old male presents with persistent dull back pain that is not relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs and a CT scan reveal a 3.5 cm expansile, radiolucent lesion in the posterior elements of L3 with a thin sclerotic rim. Histologically, the lesion consists of interlacing trabeculae of woven bone lined by prominent osteoblasts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoblastoma
Explanation
Both osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma share identical histologic features (woven bone trabeculae lined by a single layer of osteoblasts with loose fibrovascular stroma). However, osteoblastomas are distinguished by being larger (>2 cm), being locally aggressive (expansile), and causing pain that is typically less responsive to NSAIDs compared to the classic nocturnal, NSAID-responsive pain of osteoid osteoma. The posterior elements of the spine are a classic location.
Question 328
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 27-year-old man has had pain in the right index finger for the past 9 months. The pain is completely relieved with ibuprofen. An AP radiograph and CT scan are shown in Figures 80a and 80b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoid osteoma
Explanation
Osteoid osteoma is a round or oval, well-circumscribed lesion with a radiolucent nidus. A small area of calcification may be present within the center of the nidus. The radiolucent nidus is surrounded by a thick rim of sclerotic bone. These diagnostic features are frequently better seen on CT. An increase in cyclooxygenase activity has been demonstrated within osteoid osteomas, which may explain why aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs classically relieve the pain associated with these lesions. Kneisl JS, Simon MA: Medical management compared with operative treatment for osteoid-osteoma. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:179-185.
Question 329
Topic: Bone Tumors
An otherwise healthy 16-year-old boy who has had thoracolumbar pain with an increasingly worse deformity for the past 2 years now reports that the pain is worse at night. He responded well to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs initially, but they have become less effective. He denies any neurologic or constitutional symptoms. Examination is consistent with a mild thoracolumbar scoliosis and is otherwise normal. Laboratory studies show a normal CBC, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein. Standing radiographs show a 20 degree left thoracolumbar scoliosis, and he has a Risser stage of 4. A bone scan shows increased uptake at L2; a CT scan through this level is shown in Figure 18. Management should now consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. percutaneous aspiration and appropriate antibiotic therapy.
Explanation
The findings and radiographic appearance are most consistent with osteoid osteoma involving the medial pedicle. Scoliosis is commonly seen with this lesion and usually does not need surgical intervention. Excellent results have been reported with surgical excision as well as with percutaneous thermocoagulation. Nonsurgical treatment also has been described in peripheral osteoid osteoma but is not well described for lesions within the spine. Cove JA, Taminiau AH, Obermann WR, Vanderschueren GM: Osteoid osteoma of the spine treated with percutaneous computed tomography-guided thermocoagulation. Spine 2000;25:1283-1286. Kneisl JS, Simon MA: Medical management compared with operative treatment for osteoid-osteoma. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:179-185.
Question 330
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 20-year-old college student complains of deep, aching anterior thigh pain that is notably worse at night. The pain is consistently and completely relieved within 30 minutes of taking ibuprofen.
A radiograph and subsequent CT scan reveal a 0.8 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense reactive sclerosis in the femoral diaphysis. What is the most widely accepted definitive, minimally invasive treatment for this condition if medical management is intolerable?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
Explanation
The clinical presentation (nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs) and imaging findings (small radiolucent nidus <1.5 cm with surrounding sclerosis) are classic for an osteoid osteoma. Prostaglandin E2 levels are highly elevated in the nidus. If non-operative management (NSAIDs) fails or the patient desires definitive treatment, percutaneous Radiofrequency Ablation (RFA) under CT guidance is the standard of care with excellent success rates and minimal morbidity.
Question 331
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 14-year-old boy presents with multiple painless, hard bony protuberances around his knees, ankles, and shoulders that have been present since early childhood. Radiographs demonstrate multiple pedunculated and sessile bone lesions pointing away from the joints, showing continuity of the cortex and medullary cavity with the host bone. Mutations in which of the following genes are most commonly responsible for this condition, and what is their normal cellular function?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. GNAS; encoding a G-protein alpha subunit
Explanation
The patient has Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (MHE), also known as multiple osteochondromatosis. This autosomal dominant condition is caused by loss-of-function mutations in the tumor suppressor genes EXT1 or EXT2. These genes encode glycosyltransferases that are essential for the synthesis of heparan sulfate. A deficiency in heparan sulfate disrupts the regulation of Indian hedgehog (Ihh) signaling at the growth plate, leading to the formation of osteochondromas. GNAS mutations cause McCune-Albright syndrome/fibrous dysplasia; FGFR3 mutations cause achondroplasia; COMP mutations cause multiple epiphyseal dysplasia / pseudoachondroplasia; RUNX2 mutations cause cleidocranial dysplasia.
Question 332
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 25-year-old woman presents with hip pain and an impending pathological fracture of the proximal femur. Radiographs reveal a classic 'shepherd's crook' deformity with a diaphyseal 'ground-glass' appearance. The patient's medical history includes precocious puberty and hyperthyroidism. Which of the following best describes the underlying cellular pathophysiology of her musculoskeletal and endocrine abnormalities?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A post-zygotic activating mutation in the GNAS gene causing increased intracellular cAMP
Explanation
The clinical picture describes McCune-Albright syndrome, a triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait macules, and autonomous endocrine hyperfunction (such as precocious puberty). This condition is caused by a post-zygotic, somatic activating mutation in the GNAS gene, which encodes the alpha subunit of the Gs stimulating protein. This leads to constitutive activation of adenylate cyclase and uninhibited production of intracellular cyclic AMP (cAMP), driving the abnormal proliferation and differentiation in bone (fibrous dysplasia) and endocrine tissues.
Question 333
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 12-year-old girl presents with pain and swelling over her left proximal humerus after a minor fall. Radiographs show an expansile, eccentric, radiolucent lesion in the metaphysis. MRI demonstrates multiple internal fluid-fluid levels. Biopsy reveals blood-filled cystic spaces separated by fibrous septa containing osteoclast-like giant cells. Which of the following genetic alterations is most characteristic of the primary form of this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. GNAS mutation
Explanation
The clinical, radiographic, and MRI findings (fluid-fluid levels) represent an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC). Primary aneurysmal bone cysts are characterized by translocations involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17p13 in up to 70% of cases. The most common fusion partner is CDH11. GNAS mutations are associated with fibrous dysplasia. EXT1/EXT2 mutations are seen in multiple hereditary exostoses. H3F3A mutations are highly specific for giant cell tumors of bone and chondroblastomas. IDH1/2 mutations are seen in enchondromas and chondrosarcomas.
Question 334
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for a leg length discrepancy and a limp. Radiographs of the left femur reveal a large medullary lesion with a 'ground-glass' appearance and a characteristic 'shepherd's crook' deformity of the proximal femur. She also has several large, irregular hyperpigmented macules on her back and signs of precocious puberty. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of her underlying condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A defect in osteoclast differentiation due to a RANKL mutation
Explanation
The patient's presentation of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots with irregular 'coast of Maine' borders, and endocrine abnormalities (precocious puberty) is diagnostic of McCune-Albright syndrome. Fibrous dysplasia and McCune-Albright syndrome are caused by a somatic activating mutation in the GNAS gene, which encodes the alpha subunit of the Gs protein. This leads to constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase and high levels of intracellular cAMP, affecting bone, skin, and endocrine tissues.
Question 335
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 10-year-old boy presents with multiple painless, hard bony bumps around his knees and ankles. Radiographs demonstrate multiple sessile and pedunculated osteochondromas pointing away from the adjacent joints. He is clinically diagnosed with multiple hereditary exostoses (MHE). Loss-of-function mutations in which of the following genes are responsible for this autosomal dominant condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. NF1 and NF2
Explanation
Multiple hereditary exostoses (MHE), also known as multiple osteochondromatosis, is an autosomal dominant skeletal disorder caused by loss-of-function mutations in the tumor suppressor genes EXT1 or EXT2. These genes encode glycosyltransferases that are essential for the synthesis of heparan sulfate. A deficiency in heparan sulfate disrupts the Indian hedgehog (Ihh) signaling pathway at the physis, leading to ectopic cartilage growth and osteochondroma formation. NF genes cause neurofibromatosis, RB1/TP53 mutations are seen in osteosarcoma, GNAS mutations cause fibrous dysplasia, and APC mutations cause familial adenomatous polyposis.
Question 336
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 9-year-old girl is evaluated for an antalgic gait and leg length discrepancy. Radiographs of her right femur reveal an expansive, 'ground-glass' intramedullary lesion with cortical thinning. On physical examination, she has large, irregularly bordered hyperpigmented macules ('coast of Maine') and signs of precocious puberty. This clinical syndrome is caused by a somatic, activating postzygotic mutation in which of the following genes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3)
Explanation
The clinical presentation describes McCune-Albright syndrome, a classic triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait spots with irregular borders ('coast of Maine'), and peripheral precocious puberty (or other endocrinopathies). The syndrome is driven by a somatic, activating postzygotic missense mutation in the GNAS1 gene. This mutation causes a constituent activation of the stimulatory G-protein (Gs-alpha), leading to unregulated, sustained production of intracellular cyclic AMP (cAMP) and subsequent abnormal cell proliferation and differentiation.
Question 337
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 14-year-old boy presents with pain and swelling in his left shoulder. Radiographs show an expansile, lytic lesion in the proximal humerus. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates multiple 'fluid-fluid levels'. A core needle biopsy confirms an aneurysmal bone cyst. Which of the following genetic abnormalities is considered the primary driver of this neoplastic lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. GNAS mutation
Explanation
Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) were historically considered reactive lesions but are now recognized as true neoplasms driven by specific genetic alterations. Up to 70% of primary ABCs harbor rearrangements of the USP6 gene, most commonly t(16;17). GNAS mutations are associated with fibrous dysplasia, and EXT1 mutations are seen in multiple hereditary exostoses.
Question 338
Topic: Bone Tumors
Distinguishing a low-grade chondrosarcoma from a benign enchondroma can be challenging on imaging and histology. Which of the following clinical or radiographic features is most suggestive of a low-grade chondrosarcoma rather than an enchondroma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Heavily stippled calcifications within the medullary canal
Explanation
Differentiating an enchondroma from a low-grade chondrosarcoma is notoriously difficult. Clinical and radiographic features that strongly favor chondrosarcoma include the presence of unremitting pain (especially at night) unrelated to mechanical activity, rapid growth, large size (>5 cm), deep endosteal scalloping (>2/3 of cortical thickness), cortical breakthrough, and a soft tissue mass. Enchondromas are typically asymptomatic (unless associated with a pathologic fracture), small, heavily calcified, and commonly found in the hands and feet.
Question 339
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 9-year-old boy undergoes evaluation for mild shoulder discomfort. A radiograph reveals a centrally located, purely lytic lesion in the proximal humerus diaphysis with thinning of the cortices. A 'fallen leaf' sign is noted.
Diagnostic aspiration yields clear, serous yellow fluid. Laboratory analysis of this fluid is most likely to show markedly elevated levels of which of the following compared to normal serum?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prostaglandin E2 and Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
Explanation
The presentation is classic for a Unicameral Bone Cyst (UBC), or simple bone cyst. The fluid within a UBC is typically serous and clear yellow. Biochemical analysis of UBC fluid characteristically demonstrates high concentrations of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) and Interleukin-1 (IL-1), both of which are potent stimulators of osteoclastic bone resorption. This provides the rationale for treatments such as methylprednisolone injection, which decreases the production of these inflammatory mediators.
Question 340
Topic: Bone Tumors
A 19-year-old man complains of localized pain in the proximal tibia that is significantly worse at night. He reports that over-the-counter ibuprofen provides dramatic relief within 30 minutes. Plain radiographs demonstrate an area of dense cortical thickening with a small 8-mm radiolucent central nidus.
The intense nocturnal pain characteristic of this lesion is mediated by a tremendously increased local concentration of which substance?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Substance P
Explanation
The clinical presentation is classic for an Osteoid Osteoma. The radiolucent nidus is characterized by highly vascularized osteoid-producing tissue. The lesional osteoblasts produce very high levels of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), leading to a massive local overproduction of Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), sometimes 100 to 1000 times normal tissue levels. PGE2 directly causes profound pain, vasodilation, and surrounding reactive bone sclerosis. This mechanism perfectly explains the classic clinical symptom of nocturnal pain that is exquisitely sensitive to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen.
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