This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1941
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient undergoes ORIF of a midshaft clavicle fracture using a superiorly applied pre-contoured locking plate. Postoperatively, the patient notes numbness over the anterior chest wall just inferior to the incision. Which nerve was likely injured during the surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraclavicular nerves
Explanation
The intermediate and lateral branches of the supraclavicular nerve cross superficial to the clavicle. They are frequently injured or sacrificed during the superior approach to the clavicle, causing anterior chest wall numbness.
Question 1942
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 28-year-old competitive weightlifter feels a "pop" in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. If surgical repair is indicated, which anatomical footprint should be targeted?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral lip of the bicipital groove
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures typically occur at the tendinous insertion onto the lateral lip of the bicipital groove during eccentric loading. Surgical repair involves reattaching the tendon to this exact anatomic footprint to restore adduction and internal rotation strength.
Question 1943
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When utilizing an anterolateral acromial approach (deltoid-splitting) for open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture, which anatomical landmark best predicts the location of the axillary nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 5 to 7 cm distal to the lateral acromion
Explanation
The axillary nerve courses transversely across the deep surface of the deltoid approximately 5 to 7 cm distal to the lateral edge of the acromion. A deltoid split must not extend beyond this "safe zone" to prevent denervation of the anterior deltoid.
Question 1944
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
An 18-year-old rugby player sustains a direct blow to the medial aspect of his clavicle. He presents in distress, complaining of shortness of breath and difficulty swallowing. His arm is supported across his chest. What is the BEST initial imaging modality, and what is the definitive management if closed reduction is unsuccessful?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. CT scan of the chest; open reduction with cardiothoracic surgery available
Explanation
The patient is presenting with a posterior sternoclavicular dislocation, which can compress the trachea, esophagus, and great vessels. A CT scan is the best imaging modality to evaluate the SC joint, and cardiothoracic surgery must be available during open reduction due to the risk of catastrophic vascular injury.
Question 1945
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 35-year-old active male with constitutional varus alignment undergoes a medial opening-wedge high tibial osteotomy (HTO) for isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis. Which of the following is a known biomechanical consequence in the sagittal plane associated with this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased posterior tibial slope
Explanation
Medial opening-wedge HTO commonly increases the posterior tibial slope because the proximal tibia is naturally triangular, and a uniform gap opens the posterior cortex more than the anterior. This can inadvertently increase anterior tibial translation, stressing the ACL.
Question 1946
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 28-year-old weightlifter feels a sharp pop in his anterior axilla while bench pressing. Examination reveals weakness in internal rotation and an asymmetric axillary fold. MRI confirms an isolated rupture of the sternal head of the pectoralis major. Where does the sternal head anatomically insert on the humerus relative to the clavicular head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep and proximal to the clavicular head
Explanation
The pectoralis major tendon undergoes a 180-degree twist before inserting on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. Consequently, the sternal head inserts deep and proximal to the clavicular head.
Question 1947
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 28-year-old male bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior axilla while bench-pressing heavy weights. Exam reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. Which specific anatomical segment is most commonly ruptured in this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sternoclavicular head of the pectoralis major at the humeral insertion
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures most commonly occur at the humeral insertion of the sternoclavicular head. The injury classically happens during eccentric contraction with the arm extended and externally rotated, such as during the descent phase of a bench press.
Question 1948
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 45-year-old female sustains an acute medial meniscus posterior root tear. Biomechanically, this injury is most equivalent to which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A total meniscectomy
Explanation
A medial meniscus posterior root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, causing extrusion under load. Biomechanically, this completely abolishes the load-sharing function of the meniscus, equivalent to a total meniscectomy.
Question 1949
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 32-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior axillary fold while performing a heavy bench press. He is diagnosed with a complete pectoralis major rupture. Which of the following best describes the anatomic location where this injury most commonly occurs?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. At the tendon insertion on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove
Explanation
The vast majority of pectoralis major ruptures in weightlifters occur as avulsions at the tendinous insertion onto the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus. These injuries typically happen during eccentric contraction.
Question 1950
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During surgical exposure for a mid-diaphyseal radial shaft fracture via the Henry (anterior) approach, which neurovascular structure is most directly at risk and requires careful identification and protection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial artery and superficial radial nerve
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe Henry (anterior) approach for the radial shaft involves dissecting between the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis (or pronator teres, depending on the level). The radial artery and the superficial radial nerve (a sensory branch of the radial nerve) run immediately deep to the brachioradialis muscle. They are thus directly in the surgical field and are at high risk of injury if not carefully identified, mobilized, and retracted, typically ulnarward. The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is at risk with dorsal approaches to the radius. The ulnar and median nerves are located more medially in the forearm and are generally not directly in the field of the Henry approach for a mid-diaphyseal radial fracture. The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) is a deeper structure, lying on the interosseous membrane, and while it can be at risk with very deep or extensive dissection, the radial artery and superficial radial nerve are more superficially and directly vulnerable.
Question 1951
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon plans an open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal third radial shaft fracture utilizing the Thompson approach. This surgical exposure develops an internervous plane between which two muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis and Extensor Digitorum Communis
Explanation
The Thompson (dorsal) approach to the proximal radius utilizes the internervous plane between the extensor carpi radialis brevis (radial nerve) and the extensor digitorum communis (posterior interosseous nerve).
Question 1952
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When performing the Thompson (dorsal) approach to the proximal radius, the surgeon develops the interval between which two muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis
Explanation
The Thompson approach to the dorsal radius utilizes the internervous interval between the extensor carpi radialis brevis (innervated by the radial nerve) and the extensor digitorum communis (innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve).
Question 1953
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During ORIF of a proximal radius fracture utilizing the volar Henry approach, the surgeon must identify and protect the radial artery and the superficial radial nerve. In the proximal third of the forearm, the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is protected by keeping the forearm in which position?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supination
Explanation
During the proximal Henry approach, keeping the forearm in supination moves the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) laterally and away from the surgical field, reducing the risk of iatrogenic injury.
Question 1954
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old male undergoes open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a displaced two-part surgical neck fracture of the humerus via a deltopectoral approach. Post-operatively, the patient complains of numbness and weakness in his shoulder. On examination, he has difficulty initiating abduction and has sensory loss over the lateral aspect of his deltoid. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the surgical procedure or due to the initial trauma?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve.
Explanation
Correct Answer: DThe case content states: 'Axillary Nerve: Most commonly injured nerve in PHFs or during surgical approaches. It wraps around the surgical neck, approximately 5-7 cm distal to the acromion, innervating the deltoid and teres minor.' The symptoms described—difficulty initiating abduction (deltoid weakness) and sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the deltoid (axillary nerve sensory distribution)—are classic signs of axillary nerve injury.Option A (Musculocutaneous nerve):This nerve supplies the biceps and brachialis, responsible for elbow flexion and forearm supination. Injury would present with weakness in these movements and sensory loss over the lateral forearm.Option B (Radial nerve):The radial nerve is located more distally and posteriorly in the spiral groove. It innervates the triceps and wrist/finger extensors. Injury would cause wrist drop and sensory loss over the posterior forearm and hand.Option C (Ulnar nerve):The ulnar nerve primarily innervates intrinsic hand muscles and flexor carpi ulnaris. Injury would result in claw hand deformity and sensory loss over the medial hand.Option E (Median nerve):The median nerve innervates forearm flexors and thenar muscles. Injury would cause 'ape hand' deformity and sensory loss over the radial aspect of the palm and fingers.
Question 1955
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 68-year-old female with severe osteoporosis presents with a comminuted Neer four-part proximal humerus fracture. She is scheduled for surgical management. During pre-operative planning, the surgeon emphasizes the critical importance of achieving and maintaining medial calcar support during fixation. What is the primary biomechanical reason for this emphasis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To resist varus collapse and prevent screw cutout from the humeral head.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case content explicitly highlights the importance of the medial calcar under the 'Biomechanics' section: 'Medial Calcar: This dense trabecular bone region acts as a crucial weight-bearing structure, resisting varus collapse and providing critical support for internal fixation. Loss of medial calcar support significantly increases the risk of screw cutout and construct failure.' It is also mentioned under 'Complications' that 'inadequate medial support (calcar screws)' is a risk factor for screw cutout.Option A (To prevent impingement of the rotator cuff tendons):While proper plate positioning is important to prevent impingement, the medial calcar's primary role is not impingement prevention but structural support.Option B (To ensure adequate blood supply to the humeral head and prevent avascular necrosis):The integrity of the medial calcar metaphyseal extension and its periosteal attachments is vital for vascularity, but the primary biomechanical reason for supporting the calcar is to resist varus collapse, not directly to ensure blood supply. The main blood supply is from the anterior circumflex humeral artery.Option D (To facilitate early active range of motion and reduce post-operative stiffness):While stable fixation generally allows for earlier rehabilitation, the direct biomechanical role of the medial calcar is not to facilitate early ROM but to provide structural stability to the construct.Option E (To protect the axillary nerve from iatrogenic injury during screw placement):The axillary nerve is at risk during lateral plate placement and screw insertion, but the medial calcar's role is not nerve protection.
Question 1956
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 55-year-old male is undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced three-part proximal humerus fracture via a deltopectoral approach. The surgical team has positioned the patient as shown in the image below. During the approach, the surgeon identifies the cephalic vein in the deltopectoral groove. Which of the following statements accurately describes the management of the cephalic vein and the anatomical plane it defines?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The cephalic vein is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid, defining an internervous plane between the deltoid (axillary nerve) and pectoralis major (medial and lateral pectoral nerves).
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe case content describes the deltopectoral approach: 'Identify the cephalic vein running in the deltopectoral groove. This is the key internervous plane. The deltoid muscle is lateral (innervated by the axillary nerve), and the pectoralis major muscle is medial (innervated by the medial and lateral pectoral nerves). The cephalic vein is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid, but can be ligated and divided if necessary for better exposure...'Option A:While the vein can be ligated, it's typically retracted first. More importantly, it does not lie between the pectoralis minor and coracobrachialis.Option B:The cephalic vein is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid, not medially with the pectoralis major. The internervous plane description is correct, but the retraction direction is wrong.Option D:The cephalic vein is retracted laterally with the deltoid, but the plane is between the deltoid and pectoralis major, not deltoid and teres major.Option E:While the vein can be ligated, it lies in the deltopectoral groove, superficial to the deeper structures, but the axillary nerve is deeper and more distal, wrapping around the surgical neck. The vein is not directly superficial to the axillary nerve in the groove.
Question 1957
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During the surgical approach for a severely comminuted proximal humerus fracture, the surgeon utilizes the deltopectoral interval. Which of the following accurately describes the primary neural supply to the muscles forming this true internervous plane?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve and Medial/Lateral pectoral nerves
Explanation
The deltopectoral approach utilizes the internervous plane between the deltoid (innervated by the axillary nerve) and the pectoralis major (innervated by the medial and lateral pectoral nerves). This protects the neurovascular supply to both muscles during deep dissection.
Question 1958
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 68-year-old female undergoes open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with a locked compression plate for a 3-part proximal humerus fracture. Postoperatively, she develops profound weakness in external rotation and a loss of contour over the lateral shoulder. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
The axillary nerve is at high risk during surgical approaches to the proximal humerus, and its injury leads to deltoid and teres minor weakness (causing external rotation and abduction deficits). The anterior branch is particularly vulnerable if dissection strays beyond 5 cm distal to the lateral acromion.
Question 1959
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following vascular structures provides the primary blood supply to the humeral head, replacing previous historical anatomical beliefs?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
Explanation
Recent quantitative studies demonstrate that the posterior circumflex humeral artery provides roughly 64% of the blood supply to the humeral head. This updates historical teaching which incorrectly emphasized the anterior circumflex humeral artery and its anterolateral (arcuate) branch.
Question 1960
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 22-year-old female presents after an MVC with anterior cord syndrome following a flexion teardrop fracture. Which of the following sensory or motor modalities will most likely remain intact on her physical examination?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proprioception and vibratory sense below the lesion
Explanation
Anterior cord syndrome involves damage to the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord (corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts), leading to loss of motor function and pain/temperature sensation. The posterior columns are spared, preserving proprioception, vibration, and fine touch.
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