Question 1701
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic ScienceCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Ability to perform real-time intraoperative active tendon gliding assessment.
Practice Set 86 of 789
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Ability to perform real-time intraoperative active tendon gliding assessment.
During the repair of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP) tendon in Zone II, the surgeon utilized a 4-strand modified Kessler core suture technique with 3-0 braided non-absorbable suture, followed by a continuous epitendinous suture with 5-0 monofilament non-absorbable suture. What is the primary biomechanical purpose of adding the epitendinous suture to the core repair?
. To increase overall tensile strength and create a smooth surface for gliding.
The primary arterial blood supply to the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments is derived directly from which of the following vessels?
. Middle genicular artery
A patient with a chronic ACL-deficient knee undergoes a high tibial osteotomy (HTO) in preparation for a staged ligament reconstruction. To best protect the future ACL graft, how should the posterior tibial slope be managed during the HTO?
. Decreased to reduce anterior tibial translation
The superficial medial collateral ligament (sMCL) is the primary static restraint to valgus stress. At what degree of knee flexion does it provide the maximum percentage of valgus restraint?
. Valgus stress at 30 degrees
Regarding the zonal anatomy of articular cartilage, which zone contains the highest concentration of proteoglycans and features collagen fibrils oriented perpendicular to the articular surface?
. Deep (radial) zone
During an inside-out repair of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus, which nerve is most at risk of iatrogenic injury when placing the posteromedial incision?
. Saphenous nerve
Which specific meniscal injury pattern leads to a loss of hoop stresses that makes the joint biomechanically equivalent to a complete meniscectomy?
. Medial meniscus posterior root tear
During an all-inside meniscal repair of the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus, the surgeon must exercise extreme caution to avoid injuring a major neurovascular structure located immediately posterior to the joint capsule. Which structure is most at risk?
. Popliteal artery
A 60-year-old male underwent a regional fasciectomy for a severe PIP joint contracture of his ring finger. Post-operatively, the surgeon decided to insert a temporary K-wire across the PIP joint. Based on the provided case information, what is the primary rationale for using a K-wire in this scenario, and what is a potential drawback?
. To maintain extension for 2-3 weeks; however, it may increase stiffness risk.
The patient is progressing well in rehabilitation. As part of long-term management and prevention of recurrence, what is the most crucial advice to provide to this patient, particularly given his occupational history?
. Reinforce avoidance of repetitive trauma to the hypothenar region and counsel on ergonomic modifications for work and hobbies.
When microembolization occurs as a complication of Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome, which digits are most frequently and severely affected by the resulting ischemia?
. Ring and small fingers
A patient with confirmed Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome is started on medical therapy while continuing to work with modified tools. Which of the following medication classes and lifestyle modifications represent the mainstay of non-operative management?
. Calcium channel blockers, antiplatelets, and smoking cessation
During surgical reconstruction of a resected ulnar artery aneurysm in Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome, a superficial vein from the distal forearm is harvested for grafting. Why is it critically important to reverse the vein graft?
. To ensure venous valves do not impede arterial blood flow
A 45-year-old male mechanic is suspected of having Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome with impending digital ischemia. Non-invasive Doppler ultrasound is suggestive of thrombosis. What is the gold standard imaging modality for definitive anatomical mapping and surgical planning?
. Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)
A patient with symptomatic Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome and an ulnar artery aneurysm undergoes surgical intervention due to severe ischemia of the ring finger. During surgery, the aneurysm is excised. If vascular reconstruction is required due to poor collateral flow, what is the preferred conduit?
. Reversed interpositional vein graft
A 50-year-old construction worker presents with suspected Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome. He has mild symptoms and normal digital perfusion at rest. As part of initial non-operative management, which of the following pharmacological agents is most appropriate to prescribe?
. Amlodipine or Nifedipine
Which of the following clinical features is most useful in distinguishing Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome from primary Raynaud's disease?
. Asymmetric presentation involving only the ulnar digits
Which of the following layers of the ulnar artery is primarily injured first in the pathogenesis of Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome, leading to subsequent thrombosis?
. Tunica intima
During surgical exploration for Hypothenar Hammer Syndrome, the surgeon decides to simply ligate the diseased segment of the ulnar artery without interposition grafting. This decision is strictly contingent upon which intraoperative finding?
. Brisk back-bleeding from the distal ulnar artery stump indicating a complete arch