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Question 141

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

The most sensitive test for posterior cruciate ligament injury is the:

. Posterior drawer test
. Quadriceps active drawer test
. Posterior sag sign
. Posterior Lachman test
. Dynamic posterior shift test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior drawer test


Explanation

All of the above tests have been described for evaluating posterior cruciate ligament injury. Of these tests, the posterior drawer test is the most sensitive(95%).

Question 142

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 19-year-old football player sustains a direct compressive blow to the medial clavicle. He presents with shortness of breath, dysphagia, and a palpable defect at the medial clavicle. Which imaging modality is considered the gold standard for accurately evaluating this injury?

. Anteroposterior chest radiograph
. Serendipity view radiograph
. CT scan of the chest and clavicle
. MRI of the sternoclavicular joint
. Ultrasound of the upper chest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT scan of the chest and clavicle


Explanation

The clinical presentation is highly suspicious for a posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation, a true orthopedic emergency. A CT scan of the chest is the gold standard to evaluate the dislocation and identify potential compression of vital mediastinal structures.

Question 143

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old pitcher complains of poorly localized posterolateral shoulder pain and paresthesias. Angiography reveals dynamic occlusion of the posterior circumflex humeral artery with the arm in extreme abduction and external rotation. Which nerve is most likely concurrently compressed in this specific anatomical syndrome?

. Radial nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Long thoracic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

Quadrilateral space syndrome involves the dynamic compression of the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery within the quadrilateral space. It classically presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias in the axillary nerve distribution.

Question 144

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During anterior portal placement in shoulder arthroscopy, the musculocutaneous nerve is at risk if instruments are directed too far medially and inferiorly. The safe zone is determined by the nerve's entry into the conjoined tendon, which is typically located how far distal to the tip of the coracoid process?

. 1 to 2 cm
. 2 to 4 cm
. 3 to 4 cm
. 5 to 8 cm
. 10 to 12 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 to 8 cm


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the conjoined tendon (coracobrachialis) approximately 5 to 8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid process. Working too medially or inferiorly to the coracoid increases the risk of injury.

Question 145

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he presents with profound weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination, along with numbness over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which structure was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Median nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis 5-8 cm distal to the coracoid tip and is at high risk during coracoid transfer procedures. Injury results in biceps/brachialis weakness and lateral forearm paresthesia.

Question 146

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old man presents with poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid. MRI shows isolated atrophy of the teres minor. Which of the following defines the superior border of the anatomical space involved in this syndrome?

. Teres major
. Long head of the triceps
. Humeral shaft
. Teres minor
. Surgical neck of the humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres major


Explanation

The patient has Quadrilateral Space Syndrome, compressing the axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery. The boundaries are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), and surgical neck of humerus (lateral).

Question 147

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

An 18-year-old is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident and presents with severe chest pain, dyspnea, and dysphagia. Exam reveals a palpable defect at the medial end of the right clavicle. What is the best initial diagnostic imaging and definitive treatment if closed reduction fails?

. Anteroposterior chest radiograph; Open reduction with internal plate fixation
. Ultrasound; Resection of the medial clavicle
. CT scan of the chest; Open reduction with cardiothoracic surgery on standby
. MRI of the brachial plexus; Figure-of-eight brace
. Serendipity view radiograph; Closed reduction under conscious sedation only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT scan of the chest; Open reduction with cardiothoracic surgery on standby


Explanation

Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations are orthopedic emergencies due to the risk to mediastinal structures. A CT scan is the best imaging modality. If closed reduction fails, open reduction must be performed with cardiothoracic backup due to the proximity of great vessels.

Question 148

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a routine shoulder arthroscopy, the surgeon establishes the standard posterior portal approximately 2 cm inferior and 1 cm medial to the posterolateral corner of the acromion. If this portal is placed too inferiorly, which nerve is at greatest risk of injury?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve runs inferior to the teres minor and traverses the quadrilateral space. Placing the posterior portal too far inferiorly places the axillary nerve at significant risk.

Question 149

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an open anterior shoulder stabilization, a retractor is placed medially over the anterior aspect of the glenoid neck and conjoint tendon. The patient develops postoperative numbness over the lateral forearm and weakness in elbow flexion. Which nerve was most likely injured?

. Axillary nerve
. Median nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis 5-8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Vigorous medial retraction on the conjoint tendon during open anterior shoulder surgery places this nerve at high risk of traction injury.

Question 150

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

After landing awkwardly on his flexed knee, a 22-year-old basketball player has immediate onset of pain and difficulty bearing weight. With the knee flexed 30°, examination reveals increased varus, external rotation, and posterior translation which decreases when the knee is flexed to 90°. The patient most likely has injured what structure(s):

. Posterolateral complex
. Posterolateral complex and posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament and medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral complex and posterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

With an isolated injury to the posterior cruciate ligament (PC L), posterior translation increases at greater degrees of flexion demonstrating the greatest posterior translation at 90°. Injury to the lateral collateral ligament leads to varus laxity in 30° flexion without posterior translation. With an injury to the PC L and posterolateral complex, varus, external rotation, and posterior translation are detectable at 30° and increase as the knee is flexed to 90°. Isolated tears of the posterolateral complex lead to increased varus, external rotation, and posterior translation at 30° that decreases as the knee is flexed to 90° and the PC L tightens.

Question 151

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

All of the following structures have attachment to the medial femoral condyle except the:

. Adductor magnus
. Medial head of the gastrocnemius
. Superficial medial collateral ligament
. Patellofemoral ligament
. Popliteus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteus


Explanation

The popliteus attaches to the posterior aspect of the lateral femoral condyle. All of the other mentioned structures attach to the medial femoral condyle: the adductor magnus superiorly, the superficial medial collateral ligament and the gastrocnemius inferiorly, and the medial patellofemoral ligament anteriorly deep to the vastus medialis.

Question 152

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 24-year-old cross-country runner complains of anterior knee pain after running. Palpation reveals point tenderness at the inferior pole of the patella. Range of motion is full and exam demonstrates no patellofemoral crepitus. Management should include:

. C ortisone injection into the site of tenderness
. Use of a knee immobilizer for 6 weeks
. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication and quadriceps stretching exercises
. Arthroscopic lateral release
. Open patellar tendon debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication and quadriceps stretching exercises


Explanation

This scenario is consistent with infrapatellar tendinitis (jumpers knee), which is common in runners and jumpers. The mechanism often involves chronic overloads of the tendon. Anti-inflammatory medication may alleviate symptoms while quadriceps stretching decreases the load on the tendon by increasing the resting length of the muscle-tendon unit. Open patellar tendon debridement should be reserved for cases of chronic tendonitis that are refractory to conservative management.

Question 153

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

To be considered for repair, a meniscal tear must fulfill all of the following criteria except:

. The tear should be longer than 10 mm.
. The tear must be contained entirely within the vascular zone.
. The torn segment must be minimally damaged.
. A peripheral rim of meniscal tissue must exist.
. The tear should not be degenerative.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A peripheral rim of meniscal tissue must exist.


Explanation

Meniscal repair is now recognized as an effective treatment method for certain types of meniscal tears. To be considered for repair, a meniscal tear must be long enough to cause instability of the torn portion (usually longer than 10 mm). The tear should also be within the vascular zone of the mensicus where healing is most likely to occur. There must also be minimal damage to the torn segment. In general, meniscal tears in older patients tend to be degenerative in nature, precluding a successful repair. Although the peripheral tissue must be minimally damaged for a successful repair, the presence of meniscal tissue peripherally is not necessary prior to considering repair.

Question 154

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

In a congruent patellofemoral joint, the patella centers within the trochlear groove by what degree of flexion:

. 5° to 10°
. 10° to 15°
. 15° to 20°
. 20° to 25°
. 25° to 30°

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 15° to 20°


Explanation

Laurin and colleagues recognized that the normally tracking patella centered within the trochlea by 20° of knee flexion. Fulkerson and Hungerford demonstrated patellar engagement between 15° to 20° using computerized tomography scans.

Question 155

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
When describing patellar instability, which of the following is the correct relationship between maltracking and malalignment?
. Maltracking describes the bony anatomy, while malalignment describes the soft tissue anatomy.
. Maltracking refers to the patellar articulation only.
. Malalignment refers to the patellar articulation only.
. Malalignment refers to passive instability, while maltracking refers to active instability.
. Malalignment describes a static relationship, while maltracking describes a dynamic relationship.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malalignment describes a static relationship, while maltracking describes a dynamic relationship.


Explanation

Terminology describing the setting for patellar instability can be confusing when the terms 'malalignment,' 'maltracking,' and 'instability' are used interchangeably. Malalignment is an abnormal static relationship between the patella, its associated soft tissues, and the femoral and tibial axes. Maltracking is an expression of the dynamic relationships of these components and is noted during both active and passive motion.

Question 156

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 22-year-old football player sustains a valgus knee injury. MRI demonstrates a complete rupture of the medial collateral ligament (MCL) with the distal end flipped superficial to the pes anserinus tendons. What is the most appropriate management?

. Hinged knee brace locked in extension for 4 weeks
. Early active range of motion and weight-bearing as tolerated
. Surgical repair of the MCL
. Injection of platelet-rich plasma (PRP)
. Cast immobilization for 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical repair of the MCL


Explanation

While most MCL tears are managed non-operatively, a distal avulsion where the MCL retracts superficial to the pes anserinus (a "Stener-like" lesion of the knee) prevents anatomic healing. This specific injury pattern typically requires surgical repair.

Question 157

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 29-year-old distance runner presents with lateral knee pain. Pain is reproduced when pressure is applied over the lateral femoral epicondyle while extending the knee from 90 degrees to full extension. At what angle of flexion is the pain typically most severe (Noble compression test)?

. 0 degrees (full extension)
. 30 degrees
. 60 degrees
. 90 degrees
. 120 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30 degrees


Explanation

In Iliotibial (IT) band friction syndrome, the IT band rubs over the lateral femoral epicondyle. This friction is maximal at approximately 30 degrees of knee flexion, the basis for a positive Noble compression test.

Question 158

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 45-year-old male sustains a traumatic posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. From a biomechanical perspective, an untreated posterior root tear of the medial meniscus leads to which of the following joint contact property alterations?

. Decreased peak contact pressures in the medial compartment
. No significant change in contact area or pressure
. Biomechanical equivalents to a total medial meniscectomy
. Increased contact area in the medial compartment
. A shift of load transmission predominantly to the lateral compartment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biomechanical equivalents to a total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A posterior root tear of the medial meniscus disrupts circumferential hoop stresses, leading to meniscal extrusion. Biomechanically, this completely eliminates the load-sharing function of the meniscus, rendering the joint equivalent to a state of total medial meniscectomy.

Question 159

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 19-year-old collegiate football player sustains an acute grade III medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury. MRI demonstrates a distal avulsion of the superficial MCL from the tibia. The distal end of the ligament is retracted and rests superficial to the pes anserinus. What is the most appropriate management for this specific injury pattern?
. Hinged knee brace locked in extension for 4 weeks
. Acute surgical repair of the MCL
. Early functional rehabilitation with weight-bearing as tolerated
. Late reconstruction of the MCL using an allograft
. Casting in 30 degrees of flexion for 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acute surgical repair of the MCL


Explanation

This describes a Stener-like lesion of the medial knee, where the distal superficial MCL avulses and flips over the pes anserinus tendons. Because the interposed pes anserinus prevents spontaneous healing, acute surgical repair is indicated.

Question 160

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 9-year-old boy presents with a painful snapping sensation in his lateral knee. MRI demonstrates a discoid lateral meniscus. The Wrisberg variant of a discoid meniscus is characterized by the absence of which of the following anatomic structures?

. Anterior meniscofemoral ligament (Humphry)
. Posterior meniscofemoral ligament (Wrisberg)
. Posterior meniscotibial (coronary) ligament
. Transverse intermeniscal ligament
. Popliteomeniscal fascicles

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior meniscotibial (coronary) ligament


Explanation

The Wrisberg variant of a discoid lateral meniscus lacks the normal posterior meniscotibial (coronary) attachments. Its only posterior attachment is the ligament of Wrisberg, allowing hypermobility and causing the classic snapping knee syndrome.