This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 14561
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following best describes the biochemical changes in articular cartilage associated with normal aging compared to the changes seen in early osteoarthritis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Aging cartilage has decreased water content, while osteoarthritic cartilage has increased water content
Explanation
Normal aging of cartilage is characterized by decreased water content, decreased chondrocyte size, and decreased chondroitin sulfate. In contrast, early osteoarthritis is characterized by a disrupted collagen network leading to increased water content and decreased proteoglycan concentration.
Question 14562
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
A physical therapist applies a constant load to a patient's contracted Achilles tendon, resulting in a gradual increase in tendon length over time. This phenomenon is a demonstration of which viscoelastic property?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Creep
Explanation
Creep is the time-dependent deformation (increase in strain) of a viscoelastic tissue when subjected to a constant load (stress). Stress relaxation, conversely, is the decrease in stress over time when the tissue is held at a constant length.
Question 14563
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Tranexamic acid (TXA) is widely used in orthopedic surgery to reduce perioperative blood loss. Which of the following describes the primary mechanism of action of this medication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reversible binding to plasminogen to inhibit fibrinolysis
Explanation
Tranexamic acid is a synthetic analog of the amino acid lysine. It reversibly binds to the lysine-binding sites on plasminogen, preventing its conversion to plasmin and thereby inhibiting fibrin degradation (fibrinolysis).
Question 14564
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 70-year-old female with osteoporosis is scheduled for an elective spine fusion and is currently taking denosumab. This medication exerts its antiresorptive effect by targeting which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. RANKL
Explanation
Denosumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that binds to Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand (RANKL), preventing it from activating RANK on osteoclasts. This effectively inhibits osteoclast formation, function, and survival.
Question 14565
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
In periprosthetic joint infections, Staphylococcus epidermidis evades the host immune response and resists antimicrobial therapy primarily through the production of a biofilm. Which of the following is the main structural component of this biofilm matrix?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Polysaccharide intercellular adhesin
Explanation
Staphylococcus epidermidis produces a biofilm (glycocalyx) that is predominantly composed of polysaccharide intercellular adhesin (PIA). This protective slime layer defends the bacteria against phagocytosis and blocks antibiotic penetration.
Question 14566
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 45-year-old mechanic presents with chronic lateral forearm pain and weakness in finger extension, with no sensory deficits. Electromyography confirms compression of the posterior interosseous nerve. The most common site of compression for this nerve is between the two heads of which muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supinator
Explanation
The posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) is most commonly compressed at the Arcade of Frohse, which is the proximal fibrous edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle. PIN compression classically causes motor weakness in digit and thumb extension without sensory loss.
Question 14567
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
During the incorporation of a massive cortical bone allograft, the graft undergoes a process of creeping substitution. Which of the following represents the initial phase of this process after the inflammatory response?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoclastic resorption
Explanation
In cortical bone allografts, creeping substitution is initiated by osteoclastic resorption of the existing Haversian systems, creating cutting cones. This initial resorptive phase is followed by revascularization and subsequent osteoblastic bone formation, which can temporarily weaken the graft.
Question 14568
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A marathon runner sustains a gastrocnemius strain. The predominantly active muscle fibers in this athlete's gastrocnemius during a long-distance run rely on oxidative metabolism. Which of the following is a characteristic of these specific muscle fibers?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. High myoglobin content
Explanation
Endurance athletes utilize predominantly Type I (slow-twitch) muscle fibers, which rely heavily on oxidative metabolism. These fibers are characterized by high myoglobin content (giving them a red color), high mitochondrial density, and a high resistance to fatigue.
Question 14569
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 2-year-old child presents with a suspected native joint septic arthritis of the knee. Given the high prevalence of Kingella kingae in this age group, which of the following microbiological techniques will maximize the likelihood of isolating this fastidious organism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Direct inoculation of the synovial fluid into aerobic blood culture vials (e.g., BACTEC).
Explanation
Kingella kingae is a fastidious Gram-negative organism that is a leading cause of pediatric septic arthritis in children under 4 years old. Standard solid agar plating often yields false-negative results. Directly inoculating the synovial fluid into aerobic blood culture vials (such as BACTEC) significantly increases the diagnostic yield for this organism.
Question 14570
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
In the evaluation of pediatric septic arthritis of the hip, the original Kocher criteria utilized four predictors. Subsequent studies (e.g., Caird et al.) added a fifth predictor which was found to be the strongest independent predictor of septic arthritis. Which biomarker is this?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C-reactive protein (CRP) > 2.0 mg/dL (20 mg/L)
Explanation
Caird et al. modified the original Kocher criteria by adding C-reactive protein (CRP) > 2.0 mg/dL (20 mg/L) as a fifth variable. In their study, a CRP > 2.0 mg/dL was identified as the single strongest independent clinical predictor of septic arthritis in pediatric patients.
Question 14571
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 22-year-old healthy female presents with an acutely swollen, painful left wrist. She reports a history of migratory polyarthralgia over the past week and multiple scant vesiculopustular skin lesions. Synovial fluid aspiration shows a WBC count of 40,000 cells/uL. If this condition is suspected, what is the optimal culture medium required for diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thayer-Martin agar
Explanation
The clinical presentation (migratory polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, skin lesions, and an infected joint with slightly lower WBC than typical S. aureus septic arthritis) strongly suggests gonococcal arthritis (Neisseria gonorrhoeae). N. gonorrhoeae is a fastidious organism that requires specialized chocolate agar enriched with antibiotics, specifically Thayer-Martin agar, to selectively grow while inhibiting normal flora.
Question 14572
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 9-year-old boy from New England presents with a massive, minimally painful knee effusion and is able to bear weight without significant difficulty. Synovial aspiration reveals a WBC count of 35,000 cells/uL with 80% PMNs. You suspect Lyme arthritis. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for confirming this specific etiology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Serum enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for Borrelia burgdorferi antibodies
Explanation
The diagnosis of Lyme arthritis is established via a two-tiered serologic algorithm. The initial step is a sensitive enzyme immunoassay (ELISA) for B. burgdorferi antibodies. If positive or equivocal, it is followed by a confirmatory Western blot (the second tier). Synovial fluid PCR is highly specific but lacks sensitivity compared to serology and is not recommended as the initial screening test. Culture is exceedingly difficult and rarely performed clinically.
Question 14573
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 65-year-old male with a history of recurrent gout presents with acute severe pain, swelling, and redness in his native left knee. Aspiration yields cloudy fluid with 65,000 WBCs/uL. Polarized light microscopy confirms the presence of abundant needle-shaped, strongly negative birefringent crystals. Gram stain is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management regarding the diagnosis of infection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Send the fluid for definitive aerobic and anaerobic cultures, as concomitant septic arthritis can occur.
Explanation
The presence of monosodium urate crystals strongly supports an acute gout flare; however, gout and septic arthritis can coexist (found concurrently in ~1.5% to 5% of cases). Given the extremely high WBC count (which can be seen in severe gout but also indicates infection) and clinical picture, one cannot definitively rule out infection based on crystals alone. The fluid must always be sent for definitive bacterial cultures.
Question 14574
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 50-year-old immunocompromised patient from the San Joaquin Valley presents with chronic swelling of the knee. Native joint aspiration yields a WBC count of 25,000 cells/uL with a lymphocytic predominance. A fungal etiology is suspected. Which of the following culture media is the most appropriate for isolating the likely pathogen?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sabouraud dextrose agar
Explanation
The patient's demographics (San Joaquin Valley) and presentation suggest a Coccidioides immitis fungal joint infection. Sabouraud dextrose agar is specifically designed for the cultivation of fungi (dermatophytes, yeasts, and dimorphic fungi like Coccidioides) and is the correct selective medium for this suspected pathogen.
Question 14575
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 60-year-old male presents with an acutely swollen, erythematous native knee. Aspiration yields cloudy fluid with a WBC count of 65,000 cells/uL. Polarized microscopy reveals negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals. What is the most critical next step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Send the fluid for Gram stain and culture despite the presence of crystals.
Explanation
The presence of crystals does not rule out septic arthritis, as concurrent crystal arthropathy and joint infection can occur in up to 2% of cases. Synovial fluid must still be cultured.
Question 14576
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 24-year-old sexually active female presents with migratory polyarthralgia and an acutely swollen wrist. Aspiration reveals a WBC count of 45,000 cells/uL. Routine synovial cultures remain negative at 48 hours. What is the most sensitive test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) of genitourinary mucosal swabs
Explanation
Disseminated gonococcal infection is notoriously difficult to culture from synovial fluid. NAAT of mucosal surfaces (cervix, urethra, pharynx) provides the highest diagnostic sensitivity for confirming Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Question 14577
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following best describes the primary advantage of implant sonication over standard periprosthetic tissue cultures in the diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It disrupts the bacterial biofilm, improving the yield of culture organisms.
Explanation
Sonication uses low-frequency ultrasound waves to dislodge bacteria embedded within the biofilm on explanted hardware. This significantly increases the sensitivity of cultures compared to standard periprosthetic tissue sampling.
Question 14578
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 5-year-old boy presents with a temperature of 38.8 C, refusal to bear weight on the right leg, an ESR of 55 mm/hr, and a peripheral WBC of 14,000 cells/mcL. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ultrasound-guided hip aspiration and synovial fluid analysis
Explanation
This patient meets 4 out of 4 Kocher criteria, predicting a 99% probability of septic arthritis. The next most appropriate step is an ultrasound-guided hip aspiration to confirm the diagnosis and secure cultures prior to surgical intervention.
Question 14579
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
Which of the following synovial fluid profiles is most characteristic of disseminated gonococcal infection of a native joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. WBC of 40,000 cells/mcL with a negative Gram stain and frequently negative routine cultures
Explanation
Gonococcal septic arthritis typically presents with a moderately elevated synovial WBC count (30,000 to 50,000 cells/mcL), which is lower than non-gonococcal bacterial arthritis. Gram stains and standard synovial cultures are frequently negative, often requiring nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) from mucosal sites.
Question 14580
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
When processing explanted orthopedic hardware, sonication of the components is utilized to improve microbiological yield. By what mechanism does sonication primarily enhance bacterial detection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It utilizes low-frequency ultrasound waves to dislodge sessile bacteria from biofilms.
Explanation
Sonication involves applying low-frequency ultrasound to explanted hardware in a fluid bath. This physical process disrupts the protective biofilm, dislodging sessile bacteria into a planktonic state, thereby significantly increasing culture sensitivity.
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