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Question 1341

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 55-year-old woman presents with a painful, translucent mass over the dorsum of her right index finger DIP joint. Radiographs confirm severe osteoarthritis with a prominent dorsal osteophyte. What is the most critical surgical step to minimize the recurrence of this mass after excision?

. Extensive skin grafting over the defect
. Aspiration and corticosteroid injection of the cyst
. Excision of the underlying dorsal osteophyte
. Arthrodesis of the DIP joint
. Repair of the extensor terminal tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision of the underlying dorsal osteophyte


Explanation

Mucous cysts are ganglion cysts associated with underlying DIP joint osteoarthritis (Heberden's nodes). Excision of the cyst along with debridement of the underlying dorsal osteophyte is critical to reduce the risk of recurrence.

Question 1342

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When utilizing an anterolateral surgical approach for the open reduction and internal fixation of a severe pilon fracture, which of the following neurologic structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial peroneal nerve


Explanation

The anterolateral approach to the distal tibia/pilon places the superficial peroneal nerve at high risk as it crosses the surgical field anteriorly. Careful dissection and retraction are required to prevent neuroma formation and sensory deficits.

Question 1343

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 65-year-old female presents with severe pain at the base of her thumb. Radiographs demonstrate advanced joint space narrowing and osteophytes at the trapeziometacarpal joint, as well as narrowing of the scaphotrapezialtrapezoid (STT) joint. According to the Eaton-Littler classification, what stage is her basal joint osteoarthritis?
. Stage I
. Stage II
. Stage III
. Stage IV
. Stage V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage IV


Explanation

Eaton-Littler Stage IV is characterized by pantrapezial osteoarthritis, which includes involvement of the scaphotrapezialtrapezoid (STT) joint in addition to the trapeziometacarpal joint. Stage III involves severe CMC arthritis without STT involvement.

Question 1344

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 28-year-old rugby player presents with an inability to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of his ring finger after grabbing an opponent's jersey. The flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon has retracted into the palm. Within what timeframe must this injury ideally be repaired to avoid tendon necrosis and fixed retraction?

. Within 24 hours
. Within 7 to 10 days
. Within 3 weeks
. Within 6 weeks
. Within 3 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 7 to 10 days


Explanation

A Leddy-Packer Type I FDP avulsion involves retraction into the palm, disrupting all vincula blood supply. It must be repaired within 7 to 10 days to prevent tendon necrosis and irreversible myostatic contracture.

Question 1345

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 60-year-old woman complains of a painful bump on the dorsal aspect of her index finger DIP joint. Examination reveals a translucent nodule and grooving of the adjacent nail bed. Which of the following is the most critical surgical step to prevent recurrence if operative excision is chosen?

. Complete removal of the nail bed
. Excision of the cyst alone
. Excision of the cyst and debridement of the underlying dorsal osteophyte
. Fusion of the DIP joint
. Aspiration and corticosteroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision of the cyst and debridement of the underlying dorsal osteophyte


Explanation

Mucous cysts are associated with underlying osteoarthritis of the DIP joint. To minimize the risk of recurrence during surgical excision, the underlying osteophyte, which serves as the stalk or source of the cyst, must be debrided.

Question 1346

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 22-year-old athlete sustains a rotational ankle injury. Radiographs show a fracture of the proximal third of the fibula and widening of the medial clear space. What structure is highly at risk during surgical approach or from the injury itself in this specific fracture pattern?

. Tibial nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Common peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal nerve


Explanation

A Maisonneuve fracture involves a proximal fibula fracture with an associated syndesmotic disruption and medial injury. The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck and is at risk from both the injury and the proximal surgical approach.

Question 1347

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 58-year-old woman presents with severe hand pain. Radiographs demonstrate central erosions of the PIP and DIP joints with a characteristic 'gull-wing' appearance. Rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies are negative. What cytokine is most strongly implicated in the pathogenesis of the cartilage destruction in this condition?

. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)
. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
. Bone morphogenetic protein-2 (BMP-2)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)


Explanation

Erosive osteoarthritis is characterized by 'gull-wing' central erosions. Inflammatory cytokines, particularly Interleukin-1 (IL-1) and TNF-alpha, drive the production of matrix metalloproteinases, leading to aggressive cartilage degradation.

Question 1348

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 65-year-old female with advanced osteoarthritis of her right middle finger DIP joint presents with a painful, transilluminating dorsal nodule over the joint and grooving of her fingernail. Aspiration and corticosteroid injection have failed. She is scheduled for surgical excision. To minimize the risk of recurrence, which of the following steps is most critical during the surgical procedure?

. Complete excision of the extensor tendon insertion
. Ablation of the germinal nail matrix
. Debridement of the underlying dorsal osteophyte
. Release of the collateral ligaments
. Neurectomy of the distal digital nerve branch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement of the underlying dorsal osteophyte


Explanation

Mucous cysts are ganglion cysts arising from the DIP joint associated with underlying osteoarthritis. To prevent recurrence, surgical excision must include the removal of the underlying marginal osteophytes (Heberden's nodes) that cause the capsular irritation.

Question 1349

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 45-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of pain, swelling, and redness over the dorsum of his hand following a fight. He has a small, punctate wound over the third MCP joint. X-rays show no fracture or foreign body. Examination reveals significant swelling, warmth, and exquisite pain with any movement of the third MCP joint. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

. A. Prescribe oral clindamycin and discharge with instructions for warm soaks.
. B. Admit for intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and emergent surgical irrigation and debridement.
. C. Perform an aspiration of the MCP joint for Gram stain and culture.
. D. Order an MRI to evaluate for soft tissue involvement prior to any intervention.
. E. Splint the hand and review in clinic in 24 hours to monitor for improvement.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. B. Admit for intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and emergent surgical irrigation and debridement.


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe correct answer is B because the patient's presentation, including a punctate wound over an MCP joint and signs of significant inflammation with exquisite pain on movement, is highly suggestive of septic arthritis of the MCP joint, a serious complication of fight bites. Given the delayed presentation and severe symptoms, emergent surgical irrigation and debridement of the joint, combined with intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics, is the standard of care. Oral antibiotics (A) are insufficient. While joint aspiration (C) can confirm the diagnosis, it should not delay definitive surgical management once septic arthritis is clinically suspected. An MRI (D) may provide further detail but is not necessary before proceeding with emergent surgical exploration for a clear clinical picture of septic arthritis. Delaying definitive treatment (E) can lead to rapid joint destruction.

Question 1350

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

Which antibiotic regimen is considered first-line empiric therapy for a human bite infection involving the hand, pending culture results?

. A. Ciprofloxacin and Rifampin
. B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)
. C. Doxycycline and Metronidazole
. D. Cephalexin (Keflex) alone
. E. Vancomycin and Gentamicin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin)


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe correct answer is B because Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is widely considered the first-line empiric antibiotic for human bite infections. It provides excellent coverage against common oral flora, including Staphylococcus (non-MRSA), Streptococcus species, anaerobes, and notably, Eikenella corrodens. Ciprofloxacin and Rifampin (A) lack adequate anaerobic coverage. Doxycycline (C) has activity against some oral flora, but Metronidazole alone does not cover aerobic organisms like Staphylococci/Streptococci. Cephalexin (D) has good Gram-positive coverage but lacks activity against anaerobes and Eikenella. Vancomycin and Gentamicin (E) are typically reserved for more severe, resistant, or nosocomial infections, with Vancomycin targeting MRSA and Gentamicin providing Gram-negative coverage, but this combination is not optimal for initial empiric human bite coverage.

Question 1351

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

Which of the following is an absolute indication for surgical exploration and debridement of a human bite wound to the hand?

. A. A small, superficial laceration less than 1 cm without joint involvement.
. B. Presentation within 6 hours of injury with minimal surrounding inflammation.
. C. Any wound penetrating the joint capsule, tendon sheath, or involving bone.
. D. A patient with well-controlled diabetes mellitus.
. E. Mild swelling and tenderness responsive to oral antibiotics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C. Any wound penetrating the joint capsule, tendon sheath, or involving bone.


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe correct answer is C because any human bite wound that is suspected or confirmed to penetrate the joint capsule, a tendon sheath, or directly involve bone is an absolute indication for emergent surgical exploration and debridement. These injuries carry a high risk of developing severe infections like septic arthritis, tenosynovitis, or osteomyelitis. Superficial lacerations (A) or early presentations without deep involvement (B) might sometimes be managed non-operatively, but caution is paramount. Diabetes (D) increases risk but doesn't, by itself, mandate surgery without deep involvement. Response to oral antibiotics (E) suggests a less severe infection, but deep involvement would still warrant surgical management.

Question 1352

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 28-year-old male presents with a severe human bite wound to the hand. He has a documented anaphylactic allergy to penicillin. Which of the following antibiotic regimens is most appropriate to cover Eikenella corrodens and other oral flora?

. Clindamycin alone
. Cephalexin alone
. Ciprofloxacin and clindamycin
. Erythromycin alone
. Vancomycin alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ciprofloxacin and clindamycin


Explanation

Eikenella corrodens is a Gram-negative rod highly resistant to clindamycin, first-generation cephalosporins, and macrolides. In penicillin-allergic patients, a fluoroquinolone (like ciprofloxacin) combined with clindamycin or metronidazole provides optimal coverage.

Question 1353

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

During surgical exploration of a human bite wound over the small finger MCP joint, the joint capsule appears intact when the fingers are held in full extension. Which of the following maneuvers is critical to avoid missing an intra-articular penetration?

. Exploring the wound under tourniquet ischemia only
. Passively flexing the MCP joint to 90 degrees during exploration
. Extending the wrist to relax the extensor digitorum communis
. Performing an MRI prior to closure
. Injecting methylene blue into the flexor sheath

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Passively flexing the MCP joint to 90 degrees during exploration


Explanation

Fight bites occur with the MCP joint in flexion. If examined only in extension, the proximal retraction of the extensor tendon and capsule may conceal the arthrotomy, leading to missed septic arthritis.

Question 1354

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

When evaluating a patient with a suspected scapholunate ligament tear, understanding the intrinsic ligamentous anatomy is crucial. Which region of the scapholunate interosseous ligament is biomechanically the strongest and most important for resisting translation?

. Volar region
. Dorsal region
. Proximal membranous region
. Central region
. Ulnar region

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dorsal region


Explanation

The dorsal portion of the scapholunate interosseous ligament is the thickest and strongest component. It serves as the primary stabilizer of the scapholunate articulation, and its isolated disruption leads to significant instability.

Question 1355

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Following meticulous surgical irrigation and debridement of a human bite wound with intra-articular extension into the 4th MCP joint, what is the most appropriate management of the soft tissue envelope?

. Primary closure with non-absorbable sutures
. Primary closure over a closed-suction drain
. Leave open to heal by secondary intention or for delayed primary closure
. Immediate split-thickness skin grafting
. Application of a negative pressure wound therapy device at 125 mmHg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Leave open to heal by secondary intention or for delayed primary closure


Explanation

Human bite wounds have a very high risk of aggressive polymicrobial infection. The standard of care mandates formal surgical debridement while leaving the wound open to heal by secondary intention or delayed closure.

Question 1356

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

Which of the following best explains why human clenched-fist injuries frequently result in delayed presentation of septic arthritis that is difficult to visually assess upon initial emergency department evaluation?

. The wound is typically visible directly over the MCP joint when the fingers are fully extended.
. The extensor tendon laceration lies distal to the skin laceration when the hand is assessed in extension.
. The skin laceration overlies the joint capsule defect regardless of the finger's position during assessment.
. The extensor tendon laceration and capsular defect retract proximally relative to the skin when the finger is extended.
. The joint capsule remains intact due to the thick protection of the superficial sagittal bands.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The extensor tendon laceration and capsular defect retract proximally relative to the skin when the finger is extended.


Explanation

Clenched-fist injuries occur with the MCP joints in marked flexion, driving the tooth through the skin, extensor tendon, and joint capsule. When the fingers are subsequently extended, the lacerated extensor tendon and capsular defect retract proximally, sealing the bacterial inoculum deep within the joint.

Question 1357

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 25-year-old male presents with a human bite wound over the fourth MCP joint. The decision is made to take the patient to the operating room for formal irrigation and debridement. Which of the following describes the most appropriate surgical incision to adequately explore the joint and extensor mechanism?

. Direct primary closure of the traumatic laceration after high-pressure irrigation.
. A longitudinal incision directly crossing the MCP crease perpendicularly.
. Transverse extension of the wound or a modified Bruner incision.
. A volar approach through the palmar crease to assess the flexor tendons.
. Wide local elliptical excision of the wound margins down to the paratenon.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transverse extension of the wound or a modified Bruner incision.


Explanation

Operative exploration of a clenched-fist bite wound requires extending the laceration to fully visualize the joint capsule and retracted extensor tendon. This is typically done using transverse extensions or a modified Bruner incision to avoid longitudinal scars that cross the joint crease and cause severe flexion contractures.

Question 1358

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During open reduction and internal fixation of a medial malleolus fracture, a longitudinal incision is made directly over the medial malleolus. Which neurological structure is most at risk of injury during the superficial dissection in this area?

. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Saphenous nerve


Explanation

The saphenous nerve and the greater saphenous vein run in close proximity anterior to the medial malleolus. They are at significant risk of iatrogenic injury during surgical approaches to the medial malleolus.

Question 1359

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
All of the following are reported complications of operative management of a pectoralis major muscle injury, EXCEPT:
. Re-rupture of the pectoralis major tendon
. Numbness in the distribution of C6
. Postoperative infection
. Heterotopic ossification
. Hematoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Numbness in the distribution of C6


Explanation

Numbness in the distribution of C6 has not been reported as a complication of pectoralis major muscle (PMM) injury repair. The C6 dermatome primarily covers the lateral forearm, thumb, and index finger. During surgical repair of a PMM rupture, the nerves most at risk are the lateral and medial pectoral nerves, which innervate the pectoralis muscles. Re-rupture of the tendon is a known complication, reported as high as 7.7%. Postoperative infection is a significant concern due to the location in the axillary area, which has a higher bacterial burden. Both heterotopic ossification and hematoma are also recognized complications following operative management of PMM injuries.

Question 1360

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 25-year-old male suffers a severe crush injury to his leg after an industrial accident. On arrival at the ED, his BP is 100/60 mmHg, HR 110 bpm. Labs show K+ 6.2 mEq/L, Cr 2.5 mg/dL, and a significant myoglobinuria. What is the most immediate life-threatening electrolyte abnormality to address?

. Hypernatremia
. Hypocalcemia
. Hyperkalemia
. Metabolic acidosis
. Hypomagnesemia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperkalemia


Explanation

Correct Answer: CSevere crush injuries lead to rhabdomyolysis, which causes the release of intracellular contents into the bloodstream. Hyperkalemia is a critical and potentially life-threatening complication due to its direct effects on cardiac electrical stability, leading to arrhythmias. While hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and metabolic acidosis are also common in rhabdomyolysis, hyperkalemia poses the most immediate threat to life and requires urgent treatment (e.g., calcium gluconate for cardiac stabilization, insulin/glucose, beta-agonists, dialysis). The question asks for the most immediate life-threatening electrolyte, which is hyperkalemia.