This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 12141
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Which of the following stages of fracture healing is most reliant on the presence of transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta) and platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) released from degranulating platelets?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Soft callus formation
Explanation
Following a fracture, hematoma formation and the inflammatory phase occur first. Degranulating platelets within the fracture hematoma release key cytokines, including PDGF and TGF-beta, which recruit mesenchymal stem cells and initiate the early cascade of the inflammatory phase of bone healing.
Question 12142
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Galvanic corrosion in orthopedic implants is most likely to occur when which of the following conditions is met?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Two identical metals are subjected to repeated cyclic loading
Explanation
Galvanic corrosion occurs when two dissimilar metals (such as stainless steel and titanium) are in physical contact within an electrolytic solution (like bodily fluids). The difference in their electrochemical potentials drives an electron transfer, causing the more anodic metal to corrode.
Question 12143
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Following a Zone II flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) and flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) repair, a patient undergoes early active motion rehabilitation. At 6 weeks post-op, the patient demonstrates an inability to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint, despite full passive range of motion. What is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adhesion formation
Explanation
The inability to actively flex the DIP joint with fully preserved passive motion indicates a mechanical failure of the FDP tendon. Given that the patient is moving the finger but specifically lacks active DIP flexion, the most likely diagnosis is an intact FDS repair with a ruptured FDP repair.
Question 12144
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
In total joint arthroplasty, which of the following wear mechanisms is primarily responsible for the generation of submicron polyethylene particles that lead to macrophage-mediated osteolysis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adhesive wear
Explanation
Adhesive wear is the primary mechanism generating submicron ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) wear debris in total joint arthroplasty, which initiates the macrophage-mediated osteolytic cascade.
Question 12145
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Which Bone Morphogenetic Protein (BMP) is FDA approved as an alternative to autograft for anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. BMP-2
Explanation
Recombinant human BMP-2 (rhBMP-2) is FDA approved for single-level anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF) within a specific carrier. BMP-7 (also known as OP-1) was previously approved under a humanitarian device exemption for recalcitrant long bone nonunions.
Question 12146
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction, he has weakness in shoulder abduction and decreased sensation over the lateral deltoid. EMG confirms an isolated axillary nerve injury. Through which anatomical space does this nerve normally exit the axilla?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Triangular space
Explanation
The axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery exit the axilla posteriorly through the quadrangular space. The boundaries are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and the surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).
Question 12147
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 21-year-old football player sustains a valgus blow to the knee. Exam reveals medial joint line tenderness and 5 mm of opening to valgus stress at 30 degrees of flexion with a firm endpoint. Valgus stress at 0 degrees is stable. What is the severity of the injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Grade II superficial MCL
Explanation
Opening to valgus at 30 degrees with a firm endpoint indicates a Grade II sprain (partial tear) of the superficial medial collateral ligament (sMCL), which is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 30 degrees of flexion. Complete tears (Grade III) lack a firm endpoint.
Question 12148
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
A total hip arthroplasty with a cobalt-chromium (CoCr) femoral head and a titanium alloy stem is revised for aseptic loosening. Black debris is noted at the modular head-neck junction. Which type of corrosion initiates the mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at this modular interface?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Galvanic corrosion
Explanation
Fretting corrosion initiates mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at the modular head-neck junction (trunnionosis) of a THA. Fretting (micromotion) continuously breaks the protective oxide passivation layer, allowing subsequent crevice and galvanic corrosion to proceed.
Question 12149
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
A 65-year-old man undergoes revision total hip arthroplasty where a cobalt-chromium femoral head is placed onto a titanium alloy femoral stem. Which of the following types of corrosion is most likely to occur at the head-neck junction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pitting corrosion
Explanation
Galvanic corrosion occurs when two dissimilar metals (such as cobalt-chromium and titanium alloy) are placed in physical contact within an electrolytic solution like body fluid. The less noble metal undergoes accelerated corrosion. Fretting corrosion can also occur at modular junctions due to micromotion, but the presence of dissimilar metals specifically defines galvanic corrosion.
Question 12150
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) induce bone formation primarily through which of the following mechanisms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoconduction
Explanation
BMPs act via osteoinduction, which is the process of stimulating undifferentiated mesenchymal stem cells to differentiate into osteoprogenitor cells and eventually osteoblasts. Osteoconduction provides a scaffold, while osteogenesis requires the transfer of live cells.
Question 12151
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which zone of the meniscus has the best potential for healing following surgical repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Red-red zone
Explanation
The red-red zone is the peripheral outer third of the meniscus, which receives abundant vascularity from the perimeniscal capillary plexus. This robust blood supply provides the highest healing potential for meniscal repairs.
Question 12152
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
What is the predominant type of collagen found in healthy adult articular cartilage?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II
Explanation
Type II collagen makes up 90-95% of the collagen found in normal, healthy articular (hyaline) cartilage. Type I collagen is predominant in bone, tendon, meniscus, and fibrocartilage (which forms after cartilage injury).
Question 12153
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following best describes the biological process of 'intrinsic' healing in a primarily repaired Zone II flexor tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It relies primarily on fibrovascular ingrowth from the surrounding flexor sheath.
Explanation
Flexor tendon healing occurs via both intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms. Intrinsic healing relies on the proliferation and migration of tenocytes from the epitenon and endotenon within the tendon itself, nourished heavily by synovial fluid diffusion. Extrinsic healing relies on cells and vascular ingrowth from the surrounding sheath, which forms adhesions. Modern early active motion protocols favor intrinsic healing to minimize adhesions.
Question 12154
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 65-year-old man presents with dull aching pain in his right thigh and an increasing hat size. Radiographs of his femur demonstrate cortical thickening, increased trabecular markings, and a 'blade of grass' lucency. A bone biopsy would most likely reveal which of the following cellular abnormalities?
The clinical picture is classic for Paget's disease of bone (osteitis deformans). The primary cellular defect is hyperactive, enlarged, multinucleated osteoclasts (sometimes with up to 100 nuclei per cell). Ultrastructural studies often show paramyxovirus-like (e.g., measles, RSV) inclusion bodies within both the cytoplasm and nuclei of these osteoclasts, pointing to a possible viral etiology.
Question 12155
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Articular cartilage exhibits highly predictable viscoelastic properties. When a constant compressive load is applied to cartilage, it deforms rapidly at first, followed by a slow, progressive increase in deformation until an equilibrium is reached. This time-dependent biomechanical phenomenon is known as:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stress relaxation
Explanation
'Creep' is defined as the progressive deformation of a viscoelastic material under a constant load over time. In articular cartilage, this is primarily due to the exudation of interstitial fluid from the extracellular matrix. 'Stress relaxation', by contrast, is the decrease in stress over time when a material is held at a constant strain (constant deformation).
Question 12156
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Which type of corrosion occurs in modular junctions of orthopedic implants, such as the head-neck taper of a total hip arthroplasty, primarily due to micromotion that mechanically disrupts the protective passive oxide layer?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Galvanic corrosion
Explanation
Fretting corrosion occurs at contact sites between materials under load subject to minute relative motion (micromotion). This micromotion constantly disrupts the protective passive oxide film on the metal surface, exposing the underlying metal and leading to accelerated localized corrosion. This is the primary mechanism of trunnionosis in the modular head-neck taper of a THA.
Question 12157
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with a giant cell tumor (GCT) of the distal femur. Because the tumor is marginally resectable, she is treated with denosumab to downstage the lesion. Denosumab exerts its therapeutic effect by binding directly to which of the following targets?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. RANK receptor on the surface of osteoclasts
Explanation
Denosumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that binds directly to RANKL (Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand), thereby preventing it from interacting with the RANK receptor on the surface of osteoclasts and their precursors. In GCT, neoplastic stromal cells overexpress RANKL, recruiting destructive osteoclast-like giant cells. Denosumab halts this osteolysis.
Question 12158
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
In the primary repair of a Zone II flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon laceration, which of the following biomechanical variables contributes most significantly to the ultimate tensile strength of the repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The use of a running epitenon suture
Explanation
According to Strickland's principles of flexor tendon repair, the ultimate tensile strength of the repair is directly proportional to the number of core suture strands crossing the repair site. For example, a 4-strand repair is significantly stronger than a 2-strand repair. While locking knots, heavier suture caliber, and epitenon sutures (which add about 20% to the strength and smooth the repair) all contribute, the number of core strands is the single most critical factor for early active motion protocols.
Question 12159
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During the ilioinguinal approach for open reduction and internal fixation of an anterior column acetabular fracture, life-threatening hemorrhage occurs while dissecting along the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus. Which of the following vascular structures, which represents an anastomosis between the external iliac and obturator systems, is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior gluteal artery
Explanation
The 'corona mortis' (crown of death) is a highly variable vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) vessels and the obturator vessels. It is classically located retropubically, approximately 5-7 cm from the pubic symphysis, crossing the superior pubic ramus. Injury to this structure during the ilioinguinal or Stoppa approach can lead to massive, difficult-to-control hemorrhage.
Question 12160
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
According to Perrenโs strain theory of bone healing, the type of tissue that forms in a fracture gap is determined by the local mechanical strain environment. Which of the following biological tissues can tolerate the highest degree of strain before mechanical failure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Woven bone
Explanation
Perren's strain theory dictates that a tissue can only be formed in a fracture gap if the strain in that gap does not exceed the strain tolerance of the tissue. Granulation tissue can tolerate up to 100% strain without rupturing. As the fracture stabilizes and strain decreases, tissues with lower strain tolerance form: fibrocartilage tolerates 10-15% strain, woven bone tolerates about 5-10% strain, and lamellar bone tolerates only about 2% strain.
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