This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 11381
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When utilizing the direct anterior approach (DAA) for a primary total hip arthroplasty, the superficial surgical dissection utilizes an internervous plane. Which of the following pairs of muscles defines this interval?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tensor fasciae latae and Gluteus medius
Explanation
The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) exploits the internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).
Question 11382
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 30-year-old weightlifter feels a 'pop' in his anterior axillary fold during a heavy bench press. MRI confirms a rupture of the pectoralis major tendon at its insertion. In the anatomic footprint of the pectoralis major on the humerus, what is the spatial relationship of the sternal head relative to the clavicular head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The sternal head inserts deep and proximal to the clavicular head.
Explanation
The pectoralis major consists of a clavicular head and a sternocostal (sternal) head. As the muscle bellies course laterally toward their insertion on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus, the sternal head twists 180 degrees. Consequently, the sternal head tendon passes deep (posterior) to the clavicular head tendon, and its fibers insert more proximally on the humerus. Tears of the pectoralis major most commonly involve isolated rupture of the sternal head, leaving the superficial/distal clavicular head intact.
Question 11383
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an anterolateral approach for internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture, the axillary nerve is at significant risk of iatrogenic injury. What is the average distance of the axillary nerve from the lateral edge of the acromion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 cm
Explanation
The axillary nerve courses circumferentially from posterior to anterior approximately 7 cm distal to the lateral tip of the acromion. Staying within 5 cm of the acromion during lateral split approaches minimizes the risk of nerve injury.
Question 11384
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 32-year-old powerlifter feels a sharp pop in his anterior chest while bench-pressing heavy weights. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. If surgical repair of the completely avulsed tendon is performed, to which anatomic landmark should the tendon be reattached?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracoid process
Explanation
The pectoralis major normally inserts onto the lateral lip of the bicipital (intertubercular) groove. Anatomic repair of the sternocostal head to this location is critical to restore maximum adduction and internal rotation strength.
Question 11385
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 29-year-old weightlifter feels a pop in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. He presents with extensive bruising, loss of the anterior axillary fold, and weakness in internal rotation. MRI confirms a complete rupture of the pectoralis major. Where is the most common anatomic location for this tear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sternal head origin
Explanation
The most common site of pectoralis major rupture in weightlifters is a direct tendon avulsion from the humeral insertion. This typically involves the sternal head and is optimally managed with early surgical repair.
Question 11386
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 42-year-old female sustains a Bryan and Morrey Type I capitellar fracture. During ORIF, headless compression screws are to be placed anterior-to-posterior. Which surgical approach provides the most direct anterior access while minimizing the risk to the lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Kocher approach
Explanation
The Kaplan (lateral) approach utilizes the internervous plane between the ECRB and EDC. It provides more anterior exposure to the capitellum and reduces the risk of iatrogenic injury to the LUCL compared to the more posterior Kocher approach.
Question 11387
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 28-year-old weightlifter feels a pop in his anterior axilla while bench pressing. Examination reveals an asymmetric axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. MRI confirms a complete pectoralis major rupture at the sternal head insertion. Which structure provides the most reliable surgical landmark to locate the anatomical insertion site?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracobrachialis muscle belly
Explanation
The insertion of the pectoralis major is located just lateral to the bicipital groove. The long head of the biceps tendon is the most reliable landmark; identifying it and moving laterally allows accurate localization of the pectoralis major footprint for repair.
Question 11388
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 28-year-old male weightlifter feels a sudden tear in his axilla while performing a heavy bench press. He is diagnosed with a pectoralis major rupture. Which portion of the pectoralis major typically ruptures first in this scenario, and why?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clavicular head; it is active during early flexion
Explanation
The sternal head of the pectoralis major inserts most proximally and inferiorly on the humerus due to its twisted anatomic insertion. During a bench press (extension and external rotation), these fibers are under maximum tension and tear first.
Question 11389
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Proximal row carpectomy (PRC) is being considered for a 45-year-old laborer with a collapsed carpus. Evaluation of which of the following articulations is most critical to determine if PRC is an appropriate option?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radioscaphoid
Explanation
During a PRC, the capitate articulates directly with the lunate fossa of the radius. Therefore, preservation of the capitolunate joint (specifically the proximal capitate articular surface) is critical for a successful outcome.
Question 11390
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
To correct a severe humpback deformity in a scaphoid waist nonunion through a volar approach, what specific shape of bone graft is most frequently required to restore normal carpal kinematics?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cylindrical cortical strut
Explanation
A wedge-shaped corticocancellous graft (typically from the iliac crest) is placed volarly to pry open the collapsed scaphoid. This corrects the flexion deformity of the distal pole and restores scaphoid length.
Question 11391
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
A 28-year-old man presents with a 2-year-old scaphoid waist nonunion. CT imaging demonstrates a 'humpback' deformity with a lateral intrascaphoid angle of 65 degrees. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical strategy to restore carpal kinematics?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dorsal approach with a headless compression screw and demineralized bone matrix
Explanation
A humpback deformity (lateral intrascaphoid angle > 45 degrees) represents fixed flexion of the distal pole. It is best corrected via a volar approach utilizing a structural opening wedge graft (Fisk-Fernandez technique) to restore scaphoid length and alignment.
Question 11392
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
During surgical treatment of a scaphoid waist nonunion, a tourniquet is used for initial dissection. After debridement of the nonunion site, what is the most reliable intraoperative macroscopic indicator of proximal pole viability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Presence of bright yellow cancellous bone
Explanation
The most definitive intraoperative sign of bone viability is the presence of punctate bleeding from the cancellous bone bed after tourniquet deflation. Lack of bleeding (punctate ischemia) suggests avascular necrosis, which alters the reconstructive strategy toward vascularized grafting.
Question 11393
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 16-month-old male presents with a refusal to bear weight on his left leg and a low-grade fever (38.1°C). His WBC count is normal, but CRP is elevated (35 mg/L). Joint aspiration of the knee yields synovial fluid with 65,000 WBCs/mm³. Standard Gram stain and routine cultures are negative at 48 hours. A specialized PCR of the synovial fluid returns positive for a Gram-negative coccobacillus. Which of the following organisms is the most likely pathogen?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Kingella kingae
Explanation
Kingella kingae is now recognized as the most common cause of septic arthritis in children between the ages of 6 months and 4 years. It is a slow-growing, Gram-negative coccobacillus that frequently colonizes the oropharynx. It is notoriously difficult to grow on solid routine culture media but grows better when inoculated directly into blood culture vials (BACTEC) or detected via specific PCR assays. Standard Gram stains are often negative.
Question 11394
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 5-year-old girl with a history of multiple fractures, blue sclerae, and dentinogenesis imperfecta presents with a new diaphyseal femur fracture. She is currently treated with intravenous pamidronate. What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication in her condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Stimulation of osteoblast differentiation and bone formation
Explanation
The patient has Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI), caused by mutations in COL1A1 or COL1A2. Bisphosphonates, such as pamidronate, are the medical treatment of choice. They act by binding to hydroxyapatite crystals in bone and inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. This increases bone mineral density and decreases fracture incidence, though it does not correct the underlying collagen defect.
Question 11395
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 7-year-old child presents with an acute inability to bear weight on the right leg. Kocher's criteria are used to differentiate septic arthritis from transient synovitis. Which of the following is NOT one of the original four Kocher criteria?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C-reactive protein (CRP) > 2.0 mg/dL
Explanation
The original Kocher criteria include non-weight-bearing, fever > 38.5°C, ESR > 40 mm/hr, and WBC > 12,000/mm³. Although CRP is a highly sensitive modern marker, it was not included in Kocher's original 1999 study.
Question 11396
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 3-year-old girl is evaluated for multiple recurrent fractures with minimal trauma. She has blue sclerae and mild bowing of her femurs. Genetic testing confirms a mutation affecting type I collagen. Which of the following medical treatments is most commonly used to decrease fracture frequency in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subcutaneous Denosumab injections
Explanation
Intravenous bisphosphonates (e.g., pamidronate) are the standard of care in moderate to severe Osteogenesis Imperfecta. They inhibit osteoclast activity, increase bone mineral density, and significantly reduce fracture rates.
Question 11397
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
A patient undergoes revision total hip arthroplasty. The retrieved femoral component demonstrates evidence of galvanic corrosion at the modular head-neck junction. Which of the following material combinations is most susceptible to this specific type of corrosion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cobalt-chromium alloy head on a titanium alloy stem
Explanation
Galvanic corrosion occurs when two dissimilar metals are in contact in an electrolyte solution (like body fluid). A cobalt-chromium head on a titanium stem is a classic combination susceptible to galvanic corrosion due to their different resting electropotentials, leading to mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis). Ceramic heads do not undergo metallic corrosion.
Question 11398
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Secondary bone healing occurs via enchondral ossification.
According to Perren's strain theory, what is the maximum interfragmentary strain that allows for the formation of woven bone?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1%
Explanation
According to Perren's strain theory, the type of tissue that can form in a fracture gap depends on the interfragmentary strain. Lamellar bone requires <2% strain (primary healing). Woven bone can form with up to 10% strain. Fibrocartilage can tolerate up to 10-30% strain, and granulation tissue can tolerate up to 100% strain. Thus, woven bone requires strain to be less than 10%.
Question 11399
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 35-year-old woman presents with knee pain. Radiographs show an eccentric, lytic, expansile lesion in the epiphysis of the proximal tibia extending to the subchondral bone.
Biopsy demonstrates multinucleated giant cells in a stroma of mononuclear cells. The neoplastic stromal cells in this tumor are characterized by the excessive expression of which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. RANK ligand
Explanation
Giant cell tumor of bone is composed of neoplastic stromal cells that excessively express RANKL (Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand). This expression recruits and activates osteoclast-like multinucleated giant cells, which are responsible for the aggressive osteolysis characteristic of the tumor. Denosumab, a monoclonal antibody against RANKL, is used in the treatment of advanced or unresectable cases.
Question 11400
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
On a standard stress-strain curve for an orthopedic biomaterial, what does the area under the curve in the elastic region represent?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Toughness
Explanation
The area under the stress-strain curve in the elastic region represents the modulus of resilience, which is the amount of energy a material can absorb without undergoing permanent, plastic deformation. The total area under the entire curve (elastic + plastic regions) represents toughness (the energy absorbed before complete failure). The slope of the elastic region is the modulus of elasticity.
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