This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 10901
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When performing a direct anterior approach for total hip arthroplasty, the superficial internervous plane utilizes the interval between which two muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
Explanation
The superficial internervous plane in the direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach is between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane is between the rectus femoris and gluteus medius.
Question 10902
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 32-year-old woman presents with knee pain. Radiographs reveal an eccentric, lytic epiphyseal lesion in the proximal tibia. Biopsy shows multinucleated giant cells in a background of mononuclear stromal cells. Denosumab therapy is considered for this patient. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Binds to RANK receptor on multinucleated giant cells
Explanation
Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to RANKL. In Giant Cell Tumor of bone, the neoplastic cells are the mononuclear stromal cells, which express high levels of RANKL. This RANKL binds to the RANK receptor on the non-neoplastic osteoclast-like giant cells, promoting their differentiation and leading to osteolysis. Denosumab interrupts this pathway by binding to RANKL, preventing osteoclast formation and bone destruction.
Question 10903
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 10-year-old boy presents with a pathologic fracture through a central, lytic, expansile lesion in the proximal humerus metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction. A 'fallen leaf' sign is noted on the radiograph. If the lesion had been aspirated prior to fracture, the fluid obtained would typically show high levels of which of the following compared to serum?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Alkaline phosphatase
Explanation
Unicameral bone cysts (UBCs), or simple bone cysts, are fluid-filled cavities primarily found in the long bones of children. The cystic fluid has been shown to contain high concentrations of prostaglandins (especially PGE2), interleukins, and other bone-resorbing factors compared to serum. This has historically been a rationale for treating them with intralesional corticosteroid injections, which inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Question 10904
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 25-year-old man presents with anterior tibial pain. Radiographs show a multilocular, eccentric, diaphyseal lytic lesion with cortical thickening. Histology reveals nests of epithelial-appearing cells in a fibrous stroma. Which immunohistochemical marker will best differentiate this lesion from osteofibrous dysplasia?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. S-100
Explanation
Adamantinoma exhibits a biphasic histology with epithelial cells that stain positive for cytokeratin. While osteofibrous dysplasia can have scattered keratin-positive cells, broad cytokeratin positivity is diagnostic of adamantinoma.
Question 10905
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 70-year-old man presents with anterior bowing of the tibia and progressive hearing loss. Labs show an elevated alkaline phosphatase with normal calcium and phosphorus. Biopsy of the tibia shows a mosaic pattern of lamellar bone. The primary cellular defect in this disease is located in which cell type?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoclast
Explanation
Paget disease of bone is initiated by hyperactive, highly multinucleated osteoclasts, often linked to SQSTM1 mutations. The abnormal osteoblastic bone formation (mosaic pattern) is a secondary reactive process.
Question 10906
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 30-year-old postpartum woman presents with a firm mass in her abdominal wall. Excisional biopsy reveals a poorly circumscribed proliferation of bland spindle cells surrounded by dense collagen, lacking significant pleomorphism or atypical mitoses. Which of the following signaling pathways is characteristically altered in this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Wnt/beta-catenin
Explanation
Desmoid fibromatosis features mutations in either the APC or CTNNB1 genes, leading to dysregulation of the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. Nuclear beta-catenin staining is a useful diagnostic marker.
Question 10907
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 25-year-old woman is evaluated for multiple bony deformities and soft tissue nodules. Imaging shows numerous enchondromas and multiple phleboliths in the soft tissues, indicative of hemangiomas. Which of the following mutations is most strongly associated with her underlying syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. IDH1
Explanation
Maffucci syndrome involves multiple enchondromas and soft tissue spindle cell hemangiomas. Like Ollier disease, it is strongly associated with somatic mosaic mutations in IDH1 or IDH2.
Question 10908
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 65-year-old female presents with generalized bone pain, fatigue, and weight loss. Radiographs demonstrate multiple "punched-out" lytic skull lesions. Laboratory workup reveals hypercalcemia and an elevated creatinine level. The profound bone destruction in this condition is primarily mediated by which cytokine profile in the bone marrow microenvironment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased OPG / Decreased RANKL
Explanation
In multiple myeloma, malignant plasma cells upregulate RANKL and downregulate osteoprotegerin (OPG) production by marrow stromal cells. This extreme imbalance leads to unrestrained osteoclast activation and characteristic lytic lesions without reactive bone formation.
Question 10909
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 70-year-old male presents with progressive hearing loss, increasing hat size, and anterolateral bowing of his tibiae. Serum alkaline phosphatase is markedly elevated, while calcium and phosphorus are normal. Familial forms of this highly active bone remodeling disorder are most strongly associated with mutations in which of the following genes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SQSTM1
Explanation
Paget disease of bone is driven by primary osteoclast overactivity. Mutations in the SQSTM1 gene (encoding the p62 protein) are the most common genetic cause of familial Paget disease, leading to increased osteoclastogenesis via the RANK/NF-kB pathway.
Question 10910
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 12-year-old boy presents with multiple painless, bony protuberances around his knees and ankles pointing away from the joint. His father has similar lesions. The genetic mutation responsible for this condition directly causes a defect in which of the following cellular processes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Synthesis of heparan sulfate proteoglycans
Explanation
Multiple Hereditary Exostoses (MHE) is caused by autosomal dominant mutations in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes. These genes encode glycosyltransferases essential for the synthesis of heparan sulfate, which is crucial for normal physeal regulation.
Question 10911
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
An 80-year-old man presents with increasing hat size and dull, aching pain in his right femur. Laboratory studies show markedly elevated serum alkaline phosphatase with normal calcium and phosphorus levels. Which of the following gene mutations is most strongly implicated in the familial form of this disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SQSTM1
Explanation
Paget disease of bone is characterized by accelerated bone remodeling, resulting in a mosaic pattern of lamellar bone. A significant proportion of familial cases are associated with mutations in the SQSTM1 gene (encoding p62), which hyperactivates osteoclasts.
Question 10912
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
What antithrombotic agent is a selective factor Xa inhibitor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rivaroxaban
Explanation
Rivaroxaban is a selective factor Xa inhibitor. Aspirin is a cyclooxygenase inhibitor. Low-molecular-weight heparin is a nonspecific anticoagulant. Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist and reduces production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Question 10913
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
What is the difference between annealed (below the melting temperature) and remelted highly crossedlinked polyethelyne?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Annealing results in lower potential for oxidation in vivo.
Explanation
Polyethylene is remelted to remove free radicals that formed during the radiation process for cross-linking. The disadvantage of remelting polyethylene is that it reduces the mechanical properties of the material.Annealing of polyethylene maintains its mechanical propertiesbut is less effective at removing free radicals, leaving the polyethylene more susceptible to oxidation. However, both annealed and remelted polyethylene have shown in vivo oxidation.
Question 10914
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 72-year-old man with previous total hip arthroplasty developed hip pain of 1 monthโs duration. He underwent dental work 6 weeks ago. Aspiration showed a white blood cell count of > 6000 cells/ยตL (reference range, 4500-11000/ยตL) and presence of gram-positive cocci in clusters on gram stain. The orthopaedic surgeon recommended urgent debridement and irrigation. The components were judged to be stable with regard to fixation, and the surgeon elected to retain the implants. The patient had a final culture that revealed methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). If the attending physician recommended the 2-stage protocol including the use of an antibiotic-cement spacer, what is the most likely prognosis for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Poorer prognosis for eradication of infection compared to infection from sensitive organisms
Explanation
This is a late infection of at least 4 weeks symptomatic duration that most probably is hematogenous in etiology. This is not an acute hematogenous infection that can successfully be treated with irrigation and debridement. Retention of the implants with debridement and irrigation alone has been associated with poor prognosis. In a recent study, the success rate was only 44% in a series of 104 patients at a mean 5.7 years of follow-up. In one study of 50 infections attributable to MRSA or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus epidermidis organisms treated with a 2-stage protocol, the failure rate was 21%.
Question 10915
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Viscosupplementation (hyaluronan) achieves what effect in treatment of osteoarthritis pain of the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Beneficial for treating early-to-moderate osteoarthritis
Explanation
Hyaluronan is a high-molecular-weight polysaccharide. Hyaluronan has been shown effective in treating patients with early-to-moderate osteoarthritis. Hyaluronan products differ in method of production, molecular weight, biologic characteristics, and pharmacologic properties. Hyaluronan has not been shown to rebuild articular cartilage or alter the natural history of osteoarthritis.
Question 10916
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 72-year-old man was scheduled for left total knee replacement. He has a history of hypertension and deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in his right lower extremity after an ankle fracture 2 years ago that was treated nonsurgically. The patient asked about the recommended types of DVT prophylaxis or investigations. Based on the 2011 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, Preventing Venous Thromboembolic Disease in Patients Undergoing Elective Hip and Knee Arthroplasty, what is an acceptable option?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Use of pneumatic calf compressors on both lower extremities while in the hospital and 4 weeks of warfarin starting the evening of surgery
Explanation
The 2011 AAOS guideline, Preventing Venous Thromboembolic Disease in Patients Undergoing Elective Hip and Knee Arthroplasty, recommends the combined use of mechanical and pharmacological prophylaxis in patients who have a history of previous thromboembolism. This recommendation is a consensus opinion of the work group that established these guidelines because there is no other reliable evidence for this clinical scenario. There is strong evidence against the use of routine duplex scans in patients undergoing hip and knee replacement. The remaining two responses are less appropriate because they do not include the use of mechanical prophylaxis immediately after surgery.
Question 10917
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 72-year-old woman returns 3 weeks after a right total knee replacement. She has been experiencing increasing pain, swelling, and decreasing range of motion during the last 10 days. Examination shows the knee to be more swollen and warm than what is typical at 3 weeks after surgery. The knee feels stable, but she has diffuse tenderness and range of motion is between 15 and 85 degrees. What is the most appropriate investigation(s) to diagnose the etiology of her current problem?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radiographs, ESR, CRP, and knee aspiration
Explanation
Although the differential diagnosis of her symptoms is broad at this point, the description of symptoms and findings are concerning for postsurgical infection. Radiographs should be obtained to rule out mechanical causes. An aspiration for culture and cell count should also be obtained to evaluate for deep infection.
Question 10918
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
These are the anteroposterior and lateral radiographs taken 8 months after revision of an aseptically loose acetabular component of an 81-year-old man who has mild cognitive impairment but is medically healthy. A 32-mm femoral head with metal-on-polyethylene was used at the time of revision. He has a history of numerous subluxation events and 2 dislocations requiring closed reduction since the cup revision. An abduction brace was prescribed after the first dislocation. The hip functions well apart from the episodes of instability. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein values are within defined limits. What is the most appropriate treatment for his recurrent instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the head and liner to a larger bearing size
Explanation
This patient has had numerous episodes of instability and has difficulty remembering his position of risk. He has tried an abduction brace without success. Surgery is indicated for this patient. The 32-mm head appears small in the cup, indicating a very large acetabular component for which one could use a much larger bearing. There is no need for cup revision because the implant is well positioned and not loose.
Question 10919
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
The pharmacokinetics of which deep venous thrombosis (DVT) prophylactic agent are affected by liver function and dietary intake?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dalteparin
Explanation
Warfarin is an oral vitamin K antagonist that is rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract. It accumulates in the liver, where it is metabolized and excreted. The pharmacokinetics of warfarin can be affected by certain drugs or disease states that influence liver function. Fondaparinux is a synthetic factor Xa inhibitor that is eliminated through the kidneys. Both Dalteparin and Enoxaparin are low-molecularweight heparins that activate antithrombin and inhibit factors Xa and IIa. Like Fondaparinux, they are eliminated through the kidneys and should be used with caution in patients with kidney disease.---
Question 10920
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
What infection-control measure has been shown to have the most notable impact in reducing surgical-site infections?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intravenous antibiotic administration within 1 hour of surgical incision
Explanation
Timely administration of prophylactic antibiotics is the most important factor shown to decrease surgical-site infections. The use of horizontal laminar flow and body exhaust suits has not been shown to significantly affect infection rates.
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