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Question 10781

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 45-year-old male presents with the inability to actively extend his middle finger at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint after a traumatic 'flicking' injury. On examination, he is able to maintain full MCP extension if the digit is passively extended by the examiner. There is focal swelling dorsally over the MCP joint. What is the primary anatomic structure injured?

. Central slip
. Terminal extensor tendon
. Radial sagittal band
. Ulnar sagittal band
. Flexor digitorum profundus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial sagittal band


Explanation

This clinical presentation describes a traumatic extensor tendon subluxation resulting from a sagittal band rupture. The long finger is the most commonly affected digit, and the radial sagittal band is injured significantly more frequently than the ulnar sagittal band, leading to an ulnar subluxation of the extensor tendon.

Question 10782

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 60-year-old woman with a long-standing history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a progressive inability to actively extend her ring and small fingers at the MCP joints. Passive extension is full and intact, but the tenodesis effect is absent. What is the underlying pathophysiology of her condition?

. Posterior interosseous nerve compression at the arcade of Frohse
. Attritional rupture of the extensor tendons over the distal ulna
. Ischemic neuropathy of the radial nerve
. Attritional rupture of the flexor pollicis longus over a scaphoid osteophyte
. Sagittal band rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Attritional rupture of the extensor tendons over the distal ulna


Explanation

This is Vaughan-Jackson syndrome, which is characterized by the progressive attritional rupture of the digital extensor tendons in rheumatoid arthritis patients. It typically starts with the extensor digiti minimi and progresses radially to involve the EDC of the ring, long, and index fingers. It is most often caused by a dorsally prominent and subluxated distal ulna (caput ulnae syndrome) acting as a sharp fulcrum.

Question 10783

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

When evaluating the biomechanical principles of flexor tendon repair to allow for early active mobilization protocols, which of the following factors contributes most to the immediate mechanical strength of the repair site?

. Type of suture material used for the core suture
. The use of an epitendinous suture
. The number of core suture strands crossing the repair site
. The angle of the needle trajectory during the core suture placement
. The duration of postoperative immobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The number of core suture strands crossing the repair site


Explanation

The number of core suture strands crossing the repair site is the most significant determinant of immediate tensile strength. Increasing from a 2-strand to a 4-strand or 6-strand core repair significantly increases the load to failure, which is a prerequisite for safely initiating early active motion rehabilitation.

Question 10784

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 60-year-old woman presents with severe, chronic base-of-thumb pain. Radiographs demonstrate advanced destruction and sclerosis of the trapeziometacarpal joint. There is also significant narrowing and arthritic change in the scaphotrapezial (STT) joint space. According to the Eaton-Littler classification, what stage of thumb carpometacarpal arthritis does this represent?
. Stage I
. Stage II
. Stage III
. Stage IV
. Stage V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage IV


Explanation

According to the Eaton-Littler classification for CMC arthritis: Stage I has a normal joint space, Stage II has slight narrowing and osteophytes <2 mm, Stage III has significant joint destruction/sclerosis with osteophytes >2 mm, and Stage IV is defined by pantrapezial arthritis, specifically involving the scaphotrapezial (STT) joint.

Question 10785

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During digital replantation following an acute traumatic amputation, successful revascularization and functional outcomes depend on a systematic surgical approach. Which anatomical structure should ideally be repaired or stabilized first to provide a foundation for the remainder of the microsurgical reconstruction?

. Arteries
. Veins
. Flexor tendons
. Extensor tendons
. Bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone


Explanation

The standard and universally accepted sequence for digital replantation starts with Bone (skeletal fixation). Stabilizing the bone first provides a rigid framework necessary to accurately repair and tension the remaining soft tissue structures. The typical sequence follows: Bone, Extensor tendons, Flexor tendons, Arteries, Nerves, and Veins.

Question 10786

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

In optimizing a zone II flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon repair to allow for early active motion protocols, which of the following technical modifications provides the greatest increase in the tensile strength of the repair?

. Increasing the caliber of the suture material from 4-0 to 3-0
. Using a braided synthetic suture instead of a monofilament suture
. Increasing the number of core suture strands crossing the repair site
. Placing the core suture entirely on the volar half of the tendon
. Adding a simple running epitendinous suture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increasing the number of core suture strands crossing the repair site


Explanation

The most significant factor determining the tensile strength of a flexor tendon repair is the number of core suture strands crossing the repair site (e.g., a 4-strand or 6-strand repair is significantly stronger than a 2-strand repair). While adding an epitendinous suture and using thicker suture material also increase strength, multiplying the core strands provides the greatest structural integrity, permitting early active motion.

Question 10787

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 40-year-old female complains of severe, excruciatingly localized pain under her thumbnail, which is exacerbated by cold weather. On physical examination, inflating a blood pressure cuff on her proximal arm temporarily relieves the pain in the digit. What is the name of this clinical sign?

. Love's pin test
. Cold sensitivity test
. Hildreth's sign
. Tinel's sign
. Allen's test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hildreth's sign


Explanation

This patient has a classic presentation for a glomus tumor. The triad includes pinpoint tenderness, cold sensitivity, and severe pain. Hildreth's sign is the relief of pain upon inducing ischemia with a proximal tourniquet. Love's pin test is used to identify the exact point of pinpoint tenderness.

Question 10788

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 30-year-old mechanic sustains a high-pressure injection injury to his non-dominant index finger while using an industrial sprayer. He presents to the emergency department 2 hours later. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with an increased ultimate risk of amputation?

. Injection of water-based latex paint
. The initial presentation within 6 hours of injury
. Injection of grease or hydraulic fluid instead of paint
. Injection of an organic solvent such as oil-based paint or paint thinner
. A relatively low injection pressure (<1000 psi)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Injection of an organic solvent such as oil-based paint or paint thinner


Explanation

In high-pressure injection injuries, the chemical nature of the injected substance is the single most critical prognostic factor for amputation. Organic solvents, oil-based paints, and paint thinners cause severe, rapid tissue necrosis and systemic toxicity, carrying an amputation rate up to 60-80%. Grease and water-based paints generally have significantly lower amputation rates.

Question 10789

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

In the setting of traumatic amputations, ischemia time dictates the viability of the replantation. What is the generally accepted maximum cold ischemia time for replantation of an isolated completely amputated digit, compared to a major proximal limb amputation (e.g., at the proximal forearm)?

. Digit: 6 hours; Proximal Limb: 2 hours
. Digit: 12 hours; Proximal Limb: 6 hours
. Digit: 24 hours; Proximal Limb: 6 hours
. Digit: 6 hours; Proximal Limb: 12 hours
. Digit: 24 hours; Proximal Limb: 24 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Digit: 24 hours; Proximal Limb: 6 hours


Explanation

Digits lack significant muscle tissue, which is highly sensitive to warm and cold ischemia. Because of this, digits can tolerate cold ischemia times up to 24 hours and still be successfully replanted. In contrast, major limb amputations (containing bulk skeletal muscle) undergo irreversible necrosis and risk lethal reperfusion injury if ischemia time exceeds 6 hours.

Question 10790

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 30-year-old chef sustains a volar laceration to the index finger. Surgical exploration reveals a 40% partial laceration of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon in Zone II, with an intact flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS). What is the most appropriate management?

. Core suture repair using a 4-strand technique
. Epitenon-only repair followed by immobilization
. Debridement of tendon flaps and early active motion
. Excision of the FDS to prevent adhesions
. Primary tendon grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement of tendon flaps and early active motion


Explanation

Partial flexor tendon lacerations involving less than 60% of the tendon cross-sectional area do not require structural repair. Trimming the loose flaps and instituting early active motion prevents bulky scarring and tethering.

Question 10791

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 60-year-old female with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis is unable to actively extend her small and ring fingers at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints. Passive extension is intact. The tenodesis effect does not produce active extension of these digits. What is the primary pathophysiology?

. Sagittal band rupture with ulnar subluxation of the extensor tendons
. Attritional rupture of the extensor tendons over a prominent distal ulna
. Ischemic necrosis of the extensor tendons at the musculotendinous junction
. Posterior interosseous nerve compression at the arcade of Frohse
. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus over Lister's tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Attritional rupture of the extensor tendons over a prominent distal ulna


Explanation

Caput ulnae syndrome (Vaughan-Jackson lesion) occurs in rheumatoid arthritis due to dorsal subluxation of the distal ulna. This prominent bony edge causes sequential attritional ruptures of the extensor tendons, typically starting with the extensor digiti minimi and progressing radially.

Question 10792

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

To minimize the recurrence rate when surgically treating a digital mucous cyst located at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint, which step is most essential?

. Primary closure with a local rotation flap
. Routine aspiration and steroid injection prior to excision
. Excision of the underlying marginal osteophyte
. Dorsal capsulotomy of the DIP joint
. Extensor tendon tenolysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision of the underlying marginal osteophyte


Explanation

Digital mucous cysts are ganglions that communicate with the DIP joint and are driven by underlying osteoarthritis. Failure to excise the associated marginal osteophyte during cyst removal results in a high rate of recurrence.

Question 10793

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
According to the Eaton-Littler classification for thumb carpometacarpal (CMC) joint osteoarthritis, what defines a Stage III radiographic presentation?
. Normal joint space with widening in the pre-dynamic phase
. Joint space narrowing with osteophytes less than 2 mm
. Joint space narrowing with osteophytes greater than 2 mm and subluxation
. Pantrapezial arthritis including the scaphotrapezial joint
. Complete obliteration of the joint without osteophyte formation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Joint space narrowing with osteophytes greater than 2 mm and subluxation


Explanation

Eaton Stage III CMC arthritis is characterized by marked joint space narrowing, cystic changes, and osteophytes greater than 2 mm, often with dorsal subluxation. Stage IV is distinguished by the additional involvement of the scaphotrapezial (STT) joint.

Question 10794

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A patient cannot fully flex their normal middle, ring, and small fingers after undergoing an index finger flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon repair. What is the primary cause of this phenomenon?

. Lumbrical plus deformity
. FDP repaired under too much tension
. FDP repaired too loosely
. Adhesions within the flexor tendon sheath
. Bowstringing of the index finger flexor tendons

Correct Answer & Explanation

. FDP repaired under too much tension


Explanation

This describes the Quadrigia effect, which occurs when an FDP tendon is repaired too tightly (over-tensioned). Because the FDP tendons share a common muscle belly in the forearm, a shortened tendon restricts the proximal excursion of the remaining normal FDP tendons.

Question 10795

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 32-year-old female presents with a painful, eccentrically located, purely lytic lesion in the proximal tibial epiphysis extending into the metaphysis. Biopsy reveals numerous multinucleated giant cells in a background of mononuclear stromal cells. For unresectable cases or to facilitate joint preservation, a targeted biologic agent can be used. What is the mechanism of action of this agent?

. Inhibition of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Tyrosine kinase inhibition
. Monoclonal antibody against RANK ligand (RANKL)
. Inhibition of colony-stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R)
. Inhibition of the mTOR pathway

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Monoclonal antibody against RANK ligand (RANKL)


Explanation

The diagnosis is Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) of bone. Denosumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that binds to and inhibits RANKL, preventing the activation of the RANK receptor on the surface of osteoclast precursors and multinucleated giant cells. This arrests the osteoclast-like giant cell formation, leading to tumor necrosis and woven bone formation, making it highly effective for locally advanced or unresectable GCTs. CSF1R inhibitors (like Pexidartinib) are used for tenosynovial giant cell tumors (PVNS).

Question 10796

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 68-year-old man presents with dull low back pain and anemia. A technetium-99m bone scan is largely unremarkable, but subsequent radiographs reveal numerous discrete, 'punched-out' lytic lesions in the skull, spine, and pelvis. Which of the following best explains the false-negative finding on the bone scan?

. The lesions predominantly contain woven bone rather than lamellar bone.
. The tumor directly inhibits osteoblast function, preventing radiotracer uptake.
. The patient has underlying severe osteoporosis precluding tracer binding.
. Technetium-99m primarily binds to areas of hypervascularity, which is absent here.
. The tumor secretes a substance that competitively binds the radiotracer.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The lesions predominantly contain woven bone rather than lamellar bone.


Explanation

The patient's presentation (anemia, back pain, punched-out lytic lesions, cold bone scan) is classic for Multiple Myeloma. A technetium-99m (Tc-99m) bone scan relies on osteoblastic activity (bone formation) to incorporate the radiotracer. Multiple myeloma cells secrete inhibitors of osteoblast differentiation (such as DKK1 and sFRP2), leading to purely lytic lesions with essentially no reactive new bone formation. Consequently, bone scans are classically falsely negative in myeloma. A skeletal survey or whole-body low-dose CT/MRI is preferred.

Question 10797

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 72-year-old man presents with progressive hearing loss and increasing hat size. His serum alkaline phosphatase is markedly elevated, but calcium and phosphate levels are normal. Biopsy of a bowing tibial lesion reveals a mosaic pattern of lamellar bone with prominent cement lines. Which of the following treatments is the first-line pharmacologic therapy for symptomatic disease in this patient?

. Teriparatide
. Denosumab
. Zoledronic acid
. Raloxifene
. Calcitonin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Zoledronic acid


Explanation

The presentation is classic for Paget's disease of bone (osteitis deformans). The hallmark histological finding is the 'mosaic' or 'jigsaw puzzle' pattern of lamellar bone caused by disorganized osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity. First-line medical therapy for symptomatic Paget's disease consists of nitrogen-containing bisphosphonates, such as intravenous zoledronic acid, which potently inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption.

Question 10798

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 30-year-old female presents with a massive, unresectable giant cell tumor of bone (GCTB) located in her sacrum. Her oncologist initiates treatment with denosumab. Which of the following best describes the cellular mechanism of action of this targeted therapy?

. It binds to the RANK receptor expressed on the surface of neoplastic multinucleated giant cells, inducing apoptosis.
. It binds to RANKL expressed by the neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells, preventing the activation of osteoclast-like giant cells.
. It directly inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), depriving the highly vascular tumor of its blood supply.
. It internalizes into osteoclasts and disrupts the mevalonate pathway by inhibiting farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase.
. It acts as a recombinant osteoprotegerin (OPG) analog, binding directly to the Wnt receptor.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It binds to RANKL expressed by the neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells, preventing the activation of osteoclast-like giant cells.


Explanation

Giant cell tumor of bone (GCTB) is characterized by neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells and reactive, non-neoplastic multinucleated giant cells (which resemble osteoclasts). The neoplastic mononuclear cells overexpress RANK Ligand (RANKL). This RANKL binds to the RANK receptor on the reactive giant cells, leading to their activation and subsequent massive bone osteolysis. Denosumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to and neutralizes RANKL (expressed by the mononuclear cells), thereby preventing the recruitment and activation of the bone-destroying giant cells. Choice D describes the mechanism of nitrogen-containing bisphosphonates.

Question 10799

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 65-year-old male is newly diagnosed with multiple myeloma presenting with diffuse osteolytic bone lesions. The pathogenesis of these purely lytic lesions is related to a profound uncoupling of bone remodeling, featuring both osteoclast activation and severe osteoblast inhibition. Overexpression of which of the following molecules by the neoplastic plasma cells is primarily responsible for the direct inhibition of osteoblastic bone formation?

. Sclerostin
. Osteoprotegerin (OPG)
. Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL)
. Dickkopf-1 (DKK1)
. Fibroblast Growth Factor 2 (FGF2)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dickkopf-1 (DKK1)


Explanation

Multiple myeloma bone disease is uniquely characterized by purely lytic lesions with essentially no osteoblastic response (hence why bone scans are often negative). The neoplastic plasma cells induce this by upregulating RANKL and downregulating OPG to massively stimulate osteoclasts. Concurrently, they secrete Dickkopf-1 (DKK1) and soluble Frizzled-related protein 2 (sFRP-2). DKK1 is a potent soluble inhibitor of the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway. Inhibition of the Wnt pathway directly blocks the differentiation of mesenchymal stem cells into osteoblasts, thereby preventing bone formation.

Question 10800

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 55-year-old male presents with diffuse thigh pain. Radiographs show a permeative, poorly marginated lytic lesion in the femoral diaphysis with minimal periosteal reaction.

MRI reveals extensive marrow replacement extending far beyond the cortical changes. A biopsy is performed, showing sheets of atypical lymphoid cells that stain positively for CD20 and CD45. Assuming there is no impending fracture, what is the mainstay of treatment for this condition?

. Wide surgical resection and endoprosthesis
. Preoperative embolization followed by curettage
. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy
. Denosumab and observation
. Radiofrequency ablation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy


Explanation

The diagnosis is Primary Bone Lymphoma (PBL), most commonly diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), indicated by CD20 and CD45 (LCA) positivity. The hallmark of PBL treatment is that it is fundamentally a medical disease. The mainstay of treatment is systemic combination chemotherapy (e.g., R-CHOP) frequently combined with involved-field radiation therapy. Surgical intervention is contraindicated unless required for the stabilization of an impending or actual pathologic fracture.