This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 10721
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
In total joint arthroplasty, the phenomenon where microscopic asperities on the surface of an implant cold-weld together and are subsequently torn away during continuous motion is classified as which type of wear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adhesive wear
Explanation
Adhesive wear occurs when two smooth surfaces articulate and localized microscopic welding occurs at asperities due to high contact stresses. As motion continues, these micro-welds fracture, tearing material from the softer articulating surface (often the polyethylene).
Question 10722
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
The kinetic energy transferred to tissues by a ballistic projectile is mathematically related to the mass of the bullet and its velocity. If the velocity of a bullet is doubled while the mass remains constant, the kinetic energy transferred increases by a factor of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 4
Explanation
The kinetic energy (KE) of a projectile is calculated by the formula KE = 1/2 * m * v^2. Because energy is proportional to the square of the velocity, doubling the velocity results in a fourfold (2^2 = 4) increase in kinetic energy. This explains the massive cavitation and tissue damage associated with high-velocity gunshot wounds.
Question 10723
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
During normal human gait, the center of gravity undergoes sinusoidal vertical displacements. Which of the following mechanisms (a primary determinant of gait) acts during midstance to minimize the maximum vertical height of the center of gravity, thereby reducing energy expenditure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Knee flexion in the stance phase
Explanation
Knee flexion during the stance phase (typically around 15 degrees) specifically acts to lower the peak of the center of gravity's vertical path during midstance. Along with pelvic drop and pelvic rotation, these determinants of gait smooth out the body's trajectory, optimizing energy efficiency.
Question 10724
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
Rivaroxaban is an oral anticoagulant commonly prescribed for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis following total joint arthroplasty. What is its specific mechanism of action within the coagulation cascade?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Direct inhibition of Factor Xa
Explanation
Rivaroxaban (as well as apixaban) is a direct, reversible inhibitor of Factor Xa. This blocks the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Dabigatran acts via direct thrombin (IIa) inhibition. Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase. Low molecular weight heparins work by potentiating Antithrombin III.
Question 10725
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
According to the Sunderland classification of peripheral nerve injuries, which of the following best characterizes a third-degree nerve injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of axon and endoneurium continuity with an intact perineurium
Explanation
Sunderland classification: 1st degree is neuropraxia (myelin injury). 2nd degree is axonotmesis (loss of axon, intact endoneurium). 3rd degree involves loss of both axon and endoneurium, but the perineurium remains intact. 4th degree is loss of perineurium (only epineurium is intact). 5th degree is complete nerve transection.
Question 10726
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
When evaluating the orthopedic literature regarding a novel surgical technique, which of the following study designs provides the highest level of evidence (Level I)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A properly powered, high-quality randomized controlled trial
Explanation
According to the hierarchy of evidence-based medicine, Level I evidence represents the highest quality and least biased data. This includes properly powered, high-quality randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and meta-analyses of Level I RCTs. Prospective cohorts are generally Level II, retrospective studies are Level III, case series are Level IV, and expert opinion is Level V.
Question 10727
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) are extensively used in orthopedics for their osteoinductive properties. Which of the following best describes the intracellular signaling pathway activated directly upon BMP binding to its cell surface receptor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SMAD 1/5/8 pathway
Explanation
BMPs belong to the TGF-beta superfamily. When BMP binds to its serine/threonine kinase cell surface receptor, it causes phosphorylation of intracellular SMAD proteins (specifically SMAD 1, 5, and 8). These phosphorylated SMADs then form a complex with SMAD 4, which translocates to the nucleus to upregulate osteogenic genes like RUNX2.
Question 10728
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Articular cartilage relies on a specific structural organization to resist load and shear forces. Which collagen type provides the primary tensile strength of articular cartilage, and in which histologic zone is it found in the highest concentration?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II collagen / Superficial (tangential) zone
Explanation
Type II collagen constitutes 90-95% of the collagen in articular cartilage, providing its primary tensile strength. It is found in the highest concentration in the superficial (tangential) zone, where the collagen fibers are oriented parallel to the articular surface to optimally resist shear forces.
Question 10729
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 3-year-old unimmunized child presents with a swollen, erythematous knee and a fever of 39ยฐC. Arthrocentesis yields cloudy fluid with a WBC count of 85,000 cells/ยตL. Gram stain reveals Gram-negative coccobacilli. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism, and what is the optimal empiric antibiotic therapy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Haemophilus influenzae type b / Ceftriaxone
Explanation
In an unimmunized child of this age, Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) is a classic and high-risk cause of septic arthritis. It is a Gram-negative coccobacillus. The optimal empiric treatment for Hib septic arthritis is a third-generation cephalosporin, such as Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime, due to excellent joint penetration and coverage.
Question 10730
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
A 45-year-old male undergoes tendon lengthening. Which viscoelastic property describes the continuous increase in length of the tendon over time under a constant load?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Creep
Explanation
Creep is the time-dependent deformation of a viscoelastic material under a constant load. Stress relaxation is the decrease in stress over time under a constant deformation.
Question 10731
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Recombinant human bone morphogenetic protein-2 (rhBMP-2) is approved for use in anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF). What is the FDA-approved carrier for rhBMP-2 in this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Absorbable collagen sponge
Explanation
The FDA-approved carrier for rhBMP-2 (Infuse) is an absorbable collagen sponge. BMP-7 (OP-1) utilized a bovine type 1 collagen carrier but is no longer commercially available.
Question 10732
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 35-year-old female presents with a lytic epiphyseal lesion of the distal femur. Biopsy confirms a Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) of bone. If medical therapy is initiated, which molecular pathway is targeted by the drug of choice?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. RANKL inhibition
Explanation
Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets RANKL, which is overexpressed by the neoplastic stromal cells in GCT. This prevents the recruitment and activation of osteoclast-like giant cells, halting osteolysis.
Question 10733
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Articular cartilage is highly specialized to resist compressive forces. In which zone of articular cartilage are the type II collagen fibers oriented perpendicular to the joint surface?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep (radial) zone
Explanation
In the deep (radial) zone of articular cartilage, collagen fibers are oriented perpendicular to the joint surface to resist compressive loads. In the superficial zone, they are parallel to resist shear forces.
Question 10734
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 30-year-old carpenter lacerates his flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) and flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) tendons in "Zone II" of his index finger. Why is this region classically referred to as "no man's land"?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The tendons are enveloped in a tight fibro-osseous sheath predisposing to dense adhesions
Explanation
Zone II contains both the FDS and FDP tendons within a tight fibro-osseous pulley system. Historically, repairs in this zone had poor outcomes due to the high propensity for restrictive scar tissue and adhesion formation within the sheath.
Question 10735
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Which type of bone healing occurs under conditions of absolute stability, such as following rigid compression plating of a simple transverse radius fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary (contact) bone healing
Explanation
Absolute stability with anatomic reduction allows for primary bone healing, which occurs via direct Haversian remodeling without the formation of a visible fracture callus. Secondary healing requires relative stability and forms a callus.
Question 10736
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
A hamstring graft used for anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction is subjected to a constant physiological load over time, resulting in a gradual, time-dependent increase in deformation. Which of the following viscoelastic properties does this describe?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Creep
Explanation
Creep is the progressive deformation of a viscoelastic material when subjected to a constant load over time. In contrast, stress relaxation refers to a decrease in internal stress over time when the material is held at a constant deformation.
Question 10737
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 4-year-old boy presents with profound bowing of the lower extremities and a waddling gait. Laboratory studies reveal normal serum calcium, significantly decreased serum phosphate, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and normal parathyroid hormone levels. What is the most likely genetic mutation responsible for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. PHEX
Explanation
The clinical and laboratory profile is classic for X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets, which is caused by a mutation in the PHEX gene. This defect leads to the overproduction of FGF-23, causing profound renal phosphate wasting.
Question 10738
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Tranexamic acid (TXA) is frequently utilized in orthopedic trauma and arthroplasty to minimize perioperative blood loss. What is the precise mechanism of action of this medication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Competitive inhibition of plasminogen activation
Explanation
Tranexamic acid is a synthetic analog of the amino acid lysine. It reversibly and competitively binds to the lysine receptor sites on plasminogen, preventing its activation into plasmin and thereby potently inhibiting fibrinolysis.
Question 10739
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Which of the following pharmacological agents acts by primarily binding and inhibiting sclerostin, thereby upregulating the Wnt/beta-catenin signaling pathway to dramatically increase osteoblastic bone formation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Romosozumab
Explanation
Romosozumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets and inhibits sclerostin, removing its natural inhibitory effect on the Wnt/beta-catenin pathway. This results in a unique dual effect of increasing bone formation while concurrently decreasing bone resorption.
Question 10740
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
During fracture fixation, a surgeon considers combining stainless steel screws with a titanium plate. Why is this combination strictly avoided in orthopedic surgery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Susceptibility to aggressive galvanic corrosion
Explanation
Mixing dissimilar metals, such as stainless steel and titanium, creates an electrochemical potential difference when exposed to the electrolytic environment of human bodily fluids. This predictable reaction leads to galvanic corrosion, accelerated implant failure, and local tissue toxicity.
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