Menu

Question 9381

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 2-week-old neonate presents with pseudoparalysis of the right leg. Ultrasound shows a large hip effusion, and aspiration yields frank pus.

What is the most appropriate surgical approach for emergency drainage of this joint?

. Anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach
. Anterolateral (Watson-Jones) approach
. Lateral (Hardinge) approach
. Posterior (Kocher-Langenbeck) approach
. Medial (Ludloff) approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach


Explanation

The anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach is the standard for pediatric hip arthrotomy to drain septic arthritis. It provides direct, safe access to the joint capsule while avoiding damage to the critical lateral epiphyseal vessels.

Question 9382

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
An 18-month-old child presents with a limp, low-grade fever, and refusal to bear weight. Blood labs show CRP 25 mg/L and WBC 11,000/mm3. Standard synovial fluid culture is negative at 48 hours. To isolate the most likely causative organism in this age group, which laboratory technique should have been utilized?
. Fungal culture on Sabouraud agar
. Acid-fast bacilli smear
. Inoculation of synovial fluid into BACTEC aerobic blood culture vials
. Addition of hypertonic saline to the growth medium
. Polymerase chain reaction for Borrelia burgdorferi

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inoculation of synovial fluid into BACTEC aerobic blood culture vials


Explanation

Kingella kingae is the most common cause of septic arthritis in children under 4 years old. It is a fastidious Gram-negative organism; inoculating synovial fluid into BACTEC aerobic blood culture vials or utilizing PCR significantly increases diagnostic yield.

Question 9383

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for a broad skull, delayed fontanelle closure, and the unusual ability to touch her shoulders together anteriorly. Which gene mutation is responsible for her condition?

. RUNX2 (CBFA1)
. SOX9
. FGFR3
. COL2A1
. PTPN11

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RUNX2 (CBFA1)


Explanation

Cleidocranial dysplasia is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the RUNX2 (CBFA1) gene, which is a master transcription factor for osteoblast differentiation. Key features include hypoplastic or absent clavicles and delayed cranial suture closure.

Question 9384

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 9-year-old girl presents with multiple recurrent episodes of bone pain and swelling in her clavicle and distal tibia. Labs show a mildly elevated ESR but normal WBC count. Multiple biopsies reveal sterile, non-infectious inflammation. What is the first-line treatment for this condition?

. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Surgical debridement of all lesions
. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
. Oral corticosteroids
. Methotrexate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)


Explanation

Chronic Recurrent Multifocal Osteomyelitis (CRMO) is an autoinflammatory bone disorder characterized by sterile bone lesions. NSAIDs are the first-line treatment, successfully controlling symptoms in the majority of patients.

Question 9385

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 3-week-old neonate presents with a swollen, erythematous right thigh and pseudoparalysis. An ultrasound confirms a hip effusion, and radiographs show early destructive changes in the proximal femur.

What anatomic factor strongly predisposes neonates to concurrent osteomyelitis and septic arthritis of the hip?

. Presence of transphyseal vessels
. Avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis
. Thickened, impermeable periosteum
. Delayed ossification of the femoral head
. Absence of a joint capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of transphyseal vessels


Explanation

In infants younger than 18 months, transphyseal blood vessels cross the physis. This allows hematogenous infection to easily spread between the metaphysis and the epiphysis or joint space, causing concurrent osteomyelitis and septic arthritis.

Question 9386

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 7-year-old boy from Connecticut presents with acute right knee swelling and a limp. He is afebrile with a WBC of 9,000/mm³ and an ESR of 30 mm/hr. Joint aspiration yields 45,000 WBCs/mm³ with a predominance of PMNs. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
. Immediate arthroscopic irrigation and debridement
. Lyme serology (ELISA followed by Western blot)
. Intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
. Open arthrotomy
. Technetium-99m bone scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lyme serology (ELISA followed by Western blot)


Explanation

In a Lyme-endemic area, a child with monoarticular knee effusion, low inflammatory markers, and a moderate joint WBC count often has Lyme arthritis. Testing with two-tiered Lyme serology is indicated before considering surgical intervention.

Question 9387

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for short stature and delayed primary tooth eruption. On examination, she is able to bring her shoulders together anteriorly. Radiographs reveal absent clavicles and delayed skull ossification. Which transcription factor is mutated in this condition?

. SOX9
. RUNX2 (CBFA1)
. SHH
. GLI3
. FBN1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RUNX2 (CBFA1)


Explanation

Cleidocranial dysplasia is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the RUNX2 (CBFA1) gene, which is essential for osteoblast differentiation. It presents with hypoplastic clavicles, delayed cranial suture closure, and dental anomalies.

Question 9388

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 9-year-old girl presents with recurrent episodes of bone pain and swelling involving the clavicles and distal tibias. Blood cultures are repeatedly negative, and a bone biopsy reveals sterile, non-specific chronic inflammation. She also has palmoplantar pustulosis. What is the first-line treatment for this condition?

. Long-term intravenous antibiotics
. Surgical debridement of all involved bones
. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
. High-dose methotrexate
. Total body irradiation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)


Explanation

The presentation is consistent with Chronic Recurrent Multifocal Osteomyelitis (CRMO), an autoinflammatory bone disease associated with dermatologic conditions. NSAIDs are the first-line therapy, while bisphosphonates or biologics are used for refractory cases.

Question 9389

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 3-week-old neonate presents with fever, irritability, and decreased movement of the left lower extremity. Imaging demonstrates a hip effusion.

What is the most appropriate empiric intravenous antibiotic regimen after obtaining aspirates?

. Cefazolin alone
. Clindamycin alone
. Vancomycin and Ceftriaxone
. Vancomycin and Cefotaxime
. Penicillin G

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vancomycin and Cefotaxime


Explanation

Neonatal septic arthritis requires broad coverage for S. aureus, Group B Streptococcus, and Gram-negative bacilli. Vancomycin and cefotaxime are preferred; ceftriaxone is avoided in neonates due to the risk of biliary sludging and kernicterus.

Question 9390

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 9-year-old girl has had intermittent clavicle and distal tibial pain for 6 months. Inflammatory markers are mildly elevated. Multiple bone biopsies yield no bacterial growth and show chronic non-suppurative inflammation. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

. Intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics
. Long-term oral antibiotics
. Surgical curettage and bone grafting
. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
. Methotrexate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)


Explanation

Chronic Recurrent Multifocal Osteomyelitis (CRMO) is an autoinflammatory bone disease presenting with sterile bony lesions. NSAIDs are the first-line treatment and effectively manage symptoms in the majority of patients.

Question 9391

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 10-year-old boy is brought in for an abnormal shoulder appearance. He has excessive shoulder mobility and can touch his shoulders together anteriorly. Radiographs show complete absence of the clavicles. Which gene is primarily mutated in this condition?

. COL2A1
. FGFR3
. RUNX2 (CBFA1)
. SOX9
. LRP5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RUNX2 (CBFA1)


Explanation

Cleidocranial dysplasia is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by absent or hypoplastic clavicles, delayed cranial suture closure, and dental anomalies. It is caused by a mutation in the RUNX2 (CBFA1) transcription factor, critical for osteoblast differentiation.

Question 9392

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 3-week-old premature neonate presents with asymmetric hip creases, irritability, and decreased spontaneous movement of the right lower extremity. Ultrasound reveals a large right hip effusion.

Following diagnostic aspiration that yields purulent fluid, which of the following empiric antibiotic regimens is most appropriate for this patient?

. Cefazolin alone
. Clindamycin alone
. Cefotaxime and Vancomycin
. Ceftriaxone and Vancomycin
. Penicillin G alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cefotaxime and Vancomycin


Explanation

Neonatal septic arthritis empiric coverage must account for S. aureus, Group B Streptococcus, and gram-negative bacilli. Cefotaxime and Vancomycin are preferred; Ceftriaxone is contraindicated in neonates due to the risk of biliary sludging and kernicterus.

Question 9393

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 6-year-old girl with blue sclerae, dentinogenesis imperfecta, and a history of multiple low-energy long bone fractures is diagnosed with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI). She is started on an intravenous bisphosphonate protocol. What is the primary cellular mechanism of action of this medication in the treatment of her condition?

. Stimulation of osteoblast proliferation and differentiation
. Inhibition of osteoclast-mediated bone resorption by inducing apoptosis
. Direct enhancement of Type I collagen structural cross-linking
. Augmentation of intestinal calcium and phosphate absorption
. Inhibition of parathyroid hormone secretion from the parathyroid glands

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inhibition of osteoclast-mediated bone resorption by inducing apoptosis


Explanation

Bisphosphonates are taken up by osteoclasts during bone resorption, leading to inhibition of the mevalonate pathway, loss of osteoclast function, and subsequent apoptosis. This decreases the overall rate of bone turnover, increasing bone mineral density in OI patients.

Question 9394

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 10-year-old girl presents with a 6-month history of intermittent, multifocal bone pain involving the medial clavicle and bilateral proximal tibias. Laboratory studies show a mildly elevated ESR, but multiple bone biopsies show sterile, non-suppurative inflammation. Radiographs reveal mixed lytic and sclerotic metaphyseal lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this condition?

. Six weeks of targeted intravenous antibiotics
. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
. Surgical debridement of all radiographically active lesions
. Systemic methotrexate therapy
. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)


Explanation

This clinical picture describes Chronic Recurrent Multifocal Osteomyelitis (CRMO), an autoinflammatory bone disease. The first-line treatment for CRMO is the scheduled use of Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which provide symptom relief and can induce remission.

Question 9395

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 9-year-old boy is evaluated for unusual shoulder mobility. On examination, he is able to approximate his shoulders in the midline anteriorly. Physical exam also reveals a broad skull, delayed fontanelle closure, and multiple retained deciduous teeth. A mutation in which of the following genes is responsible for this patient's condition?

. COL1A1
. FGFR3
. RUNX2 (CBFA1)
. COMP
. SOX9

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RUNX2 (CBFA1)


Explanation

The patient has Cleidocranial Dysplasia, characterized by hypoplastic/aplastic clavicles, delayed skull ossification, and dental anomalies. It is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in the RUNX2 (also known as CBFA1) gene, which is essential for osteoblast differentiation.

Question 9396

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 4-week-old female is treated for culture-proven septic arthritis of the right hip.

Which unique anatomical factor makes the neonatal hip highly susceptible to permanent avascular necrosis and physeal destruction from this condition?

. Presence of a hypertrophic ligamentum teres
. Extra-capsular location of the greater trochanteric apophysis
. Intra-capsular position of the proximal femoral metaphysis
. Avascularity of the greater trochanter in neonates
. Thickened, non-yielding periosteum of the femoral diaphysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intra-capsular position of the proximal femoral metaphysis


Explanation

In neonates, the proximal femoral metaphysis is entirely intra-capsular. This allows metaphyseal osteomyelitis to decompress directly into the joint space, increasing intra-articular pressure and obliterating epiphyseal blood supply, leading to avascular necrosis.

Question 9397

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 7-year-old boy presents with high fever, chills, and an inability to bear weight on his left leg. Examination reveals severe focal tenderness over the distal femur. Which region of the bone is the initial nidus for bacterial seeding in acute hematogenous osteomyelitis in this age group?

. Epiphysis
. Physis
. Metaphysis
. Diaphysis
. Apophysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metaphysis


Explanation

In children over the age of 1 year, the metaphysis is the most common site of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis. Sluggish blood flow in the metaphyseal venous sinusoids adjacent to the physis predisposes this area to bacterial settling and infection.

Question 9398

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 6-year-old girl from Connecticut presents with a massive, painless effusion of the right knee. She had an uncharacterized rash several months prior. Joint aspiration yields 40,000 WBCs with predominantly mononuclear cells. What is the recommended initial serological test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

. Synovial fluid PCR for Kingella kingae
. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for Borrelia burgdorferi
. Western blot for Borrelia burgdorferi
. Acid-fast bacilli smear of synovial fluid
. Serum Rheumatoid Factor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for Borrelia burgdorferi


Explanation

Lyme disease arthritis typically presents as a large, relatively painless effusion with mononuclear cell predominance. Diagnosis follows a two-tier protocol: an initial ELISA (or EIA), followed by a Western blot to confirm positive or equivocal ELISA results.

Question 9399

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 35-year-old male presents with a painless burn on his right hand. Neurological examination reveals a loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution over his shoulders and upper extremities, while light touch and proprioception remain intact.

Which of the following neuroanatomical structures is primarily affected in the early stages of this condition?

. Dorsal columns
. Lateral spinothalamic tract
. Anterior white commissure
. Corticospinal tract
. Anterior horn cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior white commissure


Explanation

This patient has syringomyelia, characterized by a central cavitary lesion in the spinal cord. It typically first compresses the anterior white commissure, disrupting crossing spinothalamic fibers and causing a dissociated sensory loss (loss of pain/temperature with preserved light touch/proprioception).

Question 9400

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 5-year-old girl is diagnosed with oligoarticular Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis primarily affecting her right knee. She has an antinuclear antibody (ANA) positive titer. In addition to monitoring for leg length discrepancies, what mandatory screening must be instituted?

. Annual echocardiography
. Quarterly slit-lamp examinations
. Monthly liver function tests
. Biannual hearing tests
. Yearly DEXA scans

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quarterly slit-lamp examinations


Explanation

Children with ANA-positive oligoarticular JIA are at a high risk for developing asymptomatic chronic anterior uveitis. Frequent screening with a slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist is critical to prevent permanent vision loss.