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Question 8741

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty via the direct anterior approach. Postoperatively, she reports numbness and dysesthesia over the anterolateral aspect of her thigh. Which nerve was most likely injured, and what is its anatomic course relative to the surgical interval?

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which courses superficial to the sartorius muscle
. Femoral nerve, which lies lateral to the psoas muscle
. Obturator nerve, which passes through the obturator foramen
. Sciatic nerve, which exits below the piriformis
. Ilioinguinal nerve, which passes through the inguinal canal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which courses superficial to the sartorius muscle


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is frequently injured during the direct anterior approach as it courses superficial to the sartorius muscle. The inter-nervous plane is between the tensor fascia latae (superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius (femoral nerve).

Question 8742

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials

Which of the following manufacturing processes in highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) primarily contributes to the reduction of its mechanical yield strength and fatigue resistance compared to conventional polyethylene?

. Ethylene oxide sterilization
. High-dose gamma irradiation
. Post-irradiation remelting
. Vitamin E blending
. Mechanical compression molding

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Post-irradiation remelting


Explanation

While gamma irradiation creates cross-links that improve wear resistance, it leaves free radicals. Remelting eliminates these free radicals to prevent oxidation but decreases crystalline content, thereby reducing yield strength, ultimate tensile strength, and fatigue resistance.

Question 8743

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a direct anterior approach for THA, the surgeon develops the superficial internervous plane. Between which two muscles is this superficial dissection performed?

. Tensor fasciae latae and gluteus medius
. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
. Rectus femoris and gluteus minimus
. Adductor longus and gracilis
. Pectineus and iliopsoas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae


Explanation

The superficial interval in the direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep interval is between the rectus femoris and gluteus medius.

Question 8744

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a posterior approach to the hip, retractors are placed to expose the posterior column and acetabulum. The patient subsequently develops a dense foot drop postoperatively. Which portion of the affected nerve is most vulnerable to stretch injury in this location and why?

. Tibial division; it lies more lateral and has less perineurial connective tissue.
. Peroneal division; it lies more lateral, is tethered at the fibular head, and has less supportive connective tissue.
. Tibial division; it lies more medial and is tightly bound by the piriformis.
. Peroneal division; it lies more medial and directly contacts the posterior acetabular rim.
. Sciatic nerve trunk; the blood supply is tenuous at the level of the greater sciatic notch.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneal division; it lies more lateral, is tethered at the fibular head, and has less supportive connective tissue.


Explanation

The sciatic nerve is at risk during the posterior approach. The common peroneal division is more susceptible to stretch injury because it is located laterally, has fewer supportive connective tissue fascicles, and is anatomically tethered at the fibular head.

Question 8745

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 55-year-old female undergoes a THA using an anterolateral (Watson-Jones) approach. Postoperatively, she demonstrates a pronounced Trendelenburg lurch. Injury to which nerve is most directly responsible for this clinical finding?

. Sciatic nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Inferior gluteal nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. It is vulnerable during the anterolateral approach if dissection extends too far proximally (typically >5 cm from the greater trochanter), leading to abductor weakness and a Trendelenburg gait.

Question 8746

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A direct anterior approach to the hip utilizes the internervous plane between the sartorius and the tensor fasciae latae (TFL). Proximal extension of this superficial dissection places which of the following nerves at greatest risk of injury?

. Femoral nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Inferior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is highly vulnerable during the superficial dissection of the direct anterior approach. It courses over the sartorius and can be injured with aggressive medial retraction or errant fascial incisions.

Question 8747

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
When comparing highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) to conventional ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) for THA, the process of irradiation and subsequent remelting achieves which of the following mechanical property changes?
. Decreased wear resistance and increased fatigue strength
. Increased wear resistance and decreased fatigue strength
. Increased oxidation potential over time
. Increased ultimate tensile strength
. Complete elimination of free radicals with increased fatigue strength

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased wear resistance and decreased fatigue strength


Explanation

Irradiation of polyethylene creates cross-links that significantly increase wear resistance. However, the subsequent remelting process used to extinguish free radicals alters the crystalline structure, reducing mechanical properties like fatigue strength.

Question 8748

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 70-year-old female presents with an intractable Trendelenburg gait 3 years after a primary THA via a lateral approach. MRI confirms a massive, retracted, and fatty-infiltrated tear of the gluteus medius and minimus. What is the most appropriate surgical reconstruction option?

. Direct primary repair with non-absorbable sutures
. Gluteus maximus muscle transfer
. Iliopsoas tendon transfer
. Endoscopic debridement of the greater trochanter
. Achilles tendon allograft interposition

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gluteus maximus muscle transfer


Explanation

In cases of chronic, massive abductor tears with severe fatty infiltration where primary repair is impossible, a gluteus maximus muscle transfer is a proven salvage procedure. It effectively restores active abduction and improves the Trendelenburg gait.

Question 8749

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During open reduction and internal fixation of a transverse posterior wall acetabular fracture utilizing the Kocher-Langenbeck approach, the knee is maintained in flexion and the hip in extension. This positioning is primarily utilized to protect which of the following structures?

. Superior gluteal nerve
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Sciatic nerve
. Pudendal nerve
. Femoral nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

Maintaining the hip in extension and the knee in flexion during the Kocher-Langenbeck approach relaxes the sciatic nerve. This minimizes tension and reduces the risk of iatrogenic sciatic nerve palsy during retraction.

Question 8750

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 72-year-old woman sustains a displaced 4-part proximal humerus fracture. Examination reveals loss of sensation over the lateral deltoid. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve provides sensation to the skin overlying the lateral deltoid (Sergeant's patch) and motor innervation to the deltoid and teres minor. It is the most commonly injured nerve in proximal humerus fractures and shoulder dislocations.

Question 8751

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an anterior intrapelvic (modified Stoppa) approach for an acetabular fracture, significant hemorrhage is encountered over the superior pubic ramus. Which of the following vascular structures is most likely injured?

. Internal pudendal artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Anastomosis between the external iliac and obturator vessels
. Inferior epigastric artery
. External pudendal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anastomosis between the external iliac and obturator vessels


Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the obturator and external iliac (or inferior epigastric) systems, located over the superior pubic ramus. It is at high risk of injury during anterior approaches to the pelvis and acetabulum.

Question 8752

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 21-year-old motorcyclist is thrown from his bike and presents with a massively swollen shoulder and a pulseless upper extremity. Radiographs show lateral displacement of the scapula and a widely displaced clavicle fracture. Which of the following is the most likely neurologic injury associated with this condition?

. Axillary nerve palsy
. Complete brachial plexus avulsion
. Isolated radial nerve palsy
. Musculocutaneous nerve transection
. Spinal accessory nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Complete brachial plexus avulsion


Explanation

Scapulothoracic dissociation is characterized by lateral displacement of the scapula, clavicle fracture, and severe neurovascular injury. It is frequently associated with subclavian artery disruption and complete brachial plexus avulsion.

Question 8753

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During the ilioinguinal approach for a transverse acetabular fracture, massive hemorrhage is encountered while dissecting near the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding is most likely due to injury of an anastomosis between which two vascular structures?

. Internal iliac and external iliac arteries
. Obturator and external iliac systems
. Superior gluteal and internal pudendal arteries
. Inferior epigastric and internal pudendal systems
. Femoral and external pudendal arteries

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator and external iliac systems


Explanation

The corona mortis is an anatomical vascular anastomosis between the obturator and external iliac (or inferior epigastric) systems located over the superior pubic ramus. It is highly susceptible to injury during the ilioinguinal approach to the pelvis.

Question 8754

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 22-year-old male presents with a closed, distal-third humeral shaft fracture. He is neurologically intact on initial evaluation in the emergency department. Following closed reduction and placement of a coaptation splint, he exhibits a complete wrist drop and inability to extend his metacarpophalangeal joints. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Observation and obtaining baseline electromyography (EMG) at 3 weeks
. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Removal of the splint and re-reduction in the emergency department
. Administration of high-dose systemic corticosteroids
. Application of a dynamic extension splint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve


Explanation

While a primary radial nerve palsy associated with a closed humeral shaft fracture is typically observed, a secondary palsy occurring after a reduction maneuver is a strong indication for immediate surgical exploration. This secondary deficit suggests possible entrapment or laceration of the nerve in the fracture site.

Question 8755

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 60-year-old female taking alendronate for 10 years presents with 3 months of lateral thigh pain. Radiographs reveal diffuse cortical thickening of the lateral subtrochanteric femur with a transverse radiolucent 'beak' on the lateral cortex extending halfway through the bone. What is the most appropriate management?

. Discontinue alendronate and begin teriparatide exclusively
. Protected weight-bearing with crutches for 6 weeks
. Prophylactic cephalomedullary nailing of the femur
. Application of a hip spica cast
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prophylactic cephalomedullary nailing of the femur


Explanation

This patient has an impending atypical femur fracture associated with long-term bisphosphonate use. Prophylactic intramedullary nailing is indicated to relieve pain and prevent completion of the fracture, followed by medical management including cessation of the bisphosphonate.

Question 8756

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 48-year-old male sustains a posterior hip dislocation in a motor vehicle collision. The dislocation is successfully reduced closed in the emergency department within 2 hours of the injury. What is the most significant long-term complication associated with this injury?

. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Femoral nerve palsy
. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head
. Heterotopic ossification
. Acetabular labral tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head


Explanation

Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) of the femoral head is a major long-term complication of posterior hip dislocations. The risk is minimized by urgent reduction within 6 hours, but remains a significant potential complication even with prompt treatment.

Question 8757

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 65-year-old male with a native hip sustains a low-energy anterior hip dislocation after a fall. Upon initial inspection in the emergency department, what is the typical clinical posture of the affected lower extremity?

. Flexed, adducted, and internally rotated
. Flexed, abducted, and externally rotated
. Extended, adducted, and internally rotated
. Extended, abducted, and externally rotated
. Shortened with neutral rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexed, abducted, and externally rotated


Explanation

Anterior hip dislocations typically present with the affected limb in a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position. This contrasts with posterior hip dislocations, which classically present flexed, adducted, and internally rotated.

Question 8758

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old male undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a transverse posterior wall acetabular fracture via a Kocher-Langenbeck approach. Postoperatively, the patient demonstrates weak ankle dorsiflexion and eversion, but normal plantarflexion. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve


Explanation

The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is uniquely susceptible to iatrogenic injury during a Kocher-Langenbeck approach due to its lateral and superficial position and tethering at the sciatic notch. Injury results in foot drop and weak eversion.

Question 8759

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a posterior hip dislocation and an associated posterior wall acetabular fracture following a dashboard injury. Which nerve is most commonly injured in this specific clinical scenario?

. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Pudendal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

The sciatic nerve, particularly its peroneal division, is the most commonly injured nerve in posterior hip dislocations and posterior wall acetabular fractures due to its anatomic proximity to the posterior acetabulum.

Question 8760

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 72-year-old female presents with thigh pain and a subsequent low-energy transverse femur fracture showing cortical thickening and a lateral cortical beak. She has been taking alendronate for 10 years. What is the primary underlying pathophysiology responsible for this specific fracture pattern?

. Increased osteoclastic resorption outstripping osteoblastic activity
. Severely suppressed bone turnover leading to accumulation of microdamage
. Impaired mineralization of the organic bone matrix leading to osteomalacia
. Hyperparathyroidism secondary to chronic renal insufficiency
. Defective collagen synthesis resulting in brittle bone tissue

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severely suppressed bone turnover leading to accumulation of microdamage


Explanation

Atypical femur fractures (AFFs) are strongly associated with long-term bisphosphonate use. These antiresorptive agents profoundly suppress targeted bone remodeling, preventing the repair of physiological microdamage which accumulates over time and weakens the bone.