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Question 8701

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A newborn is noted to have deep circumferential skin creases around the distal right lower extremity with distal limb edema, as well as acrosyndactyly of the toes. What is the recommended surgical management for the deep constriction bands to prevent distal ischemia?

. Linear excision and primary closure in a single stage
. Multi-stage Z-plasty excision of the bands
. Observation until 2 years of age
. Application of a serial casting protocol
. Immediate below-knee amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Multi-stage Z-plasty excision of the bands


Explanation

The patient has Amniotic Band Syndrome (Streeter dysplasia). Deep constriction bands causing distal edema or vascular compromise are treated with surgical excision utilizing multi-stage Z-plasties to prevent circumferential scarring and contracture.

Question 8702

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for a limp. She has a temperature of 38.8°C, an ESR of 45 mm/hr, and a WBC count of 13,000/mm³. She refuses to bear weight on her right leg. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the approximate probability that she has septic arthritis of the hip?
. 3%
. 40%
. 71%
. 93%
. 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 93%


Explanation

This patient has all four Kocher predictors: fever >38.5°C, non-weight bearing, ESR >40, and WBC >12,000. The presence of all four criteria yields a 93% to 99% probability of septic arthritis.

Question 8703

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 2-year-old boy is evaluated for genu varum. Standing radiographs demonstrate a metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle (Drennan angle) of 18 degrees on the right tibia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Physiologic bowing
. Infantile Blount disease
. Nutritional rickets
. Achondroplasia
. Hypophosphatemic rickets

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infantile Blount disease


Explanation

A metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle greater than 16 degrees strongly suggests infantile Blount disease. Angles less than 10 degrees are typical of physiologic bowing.

Question 8704

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 2-year-old boy presents with a 3-day history of fever, irritability, and refusal to bear weight on his right leg. MRI reveals a subperiosteal abscess of the proximal femoral metaphysis with extension into the hip joint. What is the most likely mechanism of joint involvement?

. Hematogenous spread directly to the synovium
. Direct trauma introducing environmental bacteria
. Transphyseal spread through vascular channels
. Spread through the intra-articular metaphysis
. Lymphatic spread from a pelvic focus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spread through the intra-articular metaphysis


Explanation

In the proximal femur, the metaphysis is intracapsular. Therefore, metaphyseal osteomyelitis can easily break through the cortex directly into the joint space, causing a concurrent septic arthritis.

Question 8705

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 4-year-old boy presents with right hip pain, a temperature of 38.6 C (101.5 F), refusal to bear weight, an ESR of 45 mm/hr, and a WBC count of 13,000/mm3. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the predictive probability that this child has septic arthritis of the hip?

. 3%
. 40%
. 71%
. 93%
. 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 99%


Explanation

The Kocher criteria include non-weight-bearing status, temperature > 38.5 C, ESR > 40 mm/hr, and WBC > 12,000/mm3. Having all 4 positive criteria correlates with a 99% probability of septic arthritis.

Question 8706

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 4-year-old boy presents with right hip pain, a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), inability to bear weight, and a WBC count of 14,000/mm3. ESR is 55 mm/hr. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the approximate probability that this child has septic arthritis rather than transient synovitis?

. 3%
. 40%
. 73%
. 93%
. 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 99%


Explanation

The patient meets all four Kocher criteria (fever >38.5°C, inability to bear weight, WBC >12,000, ESR >40). The probability of septic arthritis with 4 positive predictors is approximately 99%.

Question 8707

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 14-month-old girl presents with refusal to bear weight on her right leg. She is afebrile with normal inflammatory markers. MRI shows early osteomyelitis in the distal tibial metaphysis. Given her age, what fastidious organism should be highly suspected, and how can its culture yield be optimized?

. Staphylococcus aureus; culture on MacConkey agar
. Kingella kingae; inoculate directly into aerobic blood culture vials
. Group B Streptococcus; inoculate into anaerobic vials
. Salmonella enteritidis; culture on Thayer-Martin agar
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa; culture on chocolate agar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kingella kingae; inoculate directly into aerobic blood culture vials


Explanation

Kingella kingae is a leading cause of pediatric osteoarticular infections in children aged 6 to 36 months, often presenting with mild systemic symptoms. Culturing aspirates directly into aerobic blood culture vials significantly improves detection.

Question 8708

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 3-year-old obese girl presents with unilateral genu varum. Radiographs reveal a metaphyseal-diaphyseal (Drennan) angle of 20 degrees. What is the diagnosis and best initial treatment?

. Physiologic bowing; observation
. Rickets; vitamin D supplementation
. Infantile Blount disease; KAFO bracing
. Juvenile Blount disease; immediate osteotomy
. Achondroplasia; observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infantile Blount disease; KAFO bracing


Explanation

A Drennan metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle greater than 16 degrees predicts progression to infantile Blount disease. Because the child is 3 years old, early intervention with a Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthosis (KAFO) is indicated.

Question 8709

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 3-year-old girl refuses to bear weight on her right leg for 2 days. Her temperature is 38.8 C, ESR is 50 mm/hr, and peripheral WBC is 14,000. Ultrasound confirms a hip effusion. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the probability of septic arthritis?

. Less than 10 percent
. Approximately 30 percent
. Approximately 50 percent
. Greater than 90 percent
. Exactly 100 percent

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater than 90 percent


Explanation

The patient meets all four Kocher criteria: non-weight bearing, temperature >38.5 C, ESR >40, and WBC >12,000. The presence of four criteria is associated with a 93 to 99 percent probability of septic arthritis.

Question 8710

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

When attempting to differentiate transient synovitis from septic arthritis of the pediatric hip, which laboratory value has been shown to be the strongest independent multivariate predictor for septic arthritis?

. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
. Peripheral white blood cell count
. C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 2.0 mg/dL
. Serum procalcitonin
. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C-reactive protein (CRP) level greater than 2.0 mg/dL


Explanation

C-reactive protein (CRP) greater than 2.0 mg/dL has been validated as the single strongest independent predictor for septic arthritis, and it is frequently added to modified Kocher criteria to increase diagnostic accuracy.

Question 8711

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a direct anterior approach for total hip arthroplasty, which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the superficial dissection between the sartorius and tensor fasciae latae?

. Femoral nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve runs superficially near the internervous plane of the direct anterior approach. It is at significant risk of neuropraxia or transection during this exposure.

Question 8712

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Aseptic loosening due to wear-particle induced osteolysis remains a long-term complication of total hip arthroplasty. At the cellular level, which of the following is the primary direct mediator of osteoclast activation and subsequent bone resorption in this cascade?

. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL)
. Bone morphogenetic protein-2 (BMP-2)
. Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANKL)


Explanation

While macrophages release IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha in response to wear particles, RANKL is the final common and primary direct mediator that binds to RANK on osteoclast precursors, stimulating their differentiation and activation.

Question 8713

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

According to the latest guidelines from the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) and the American Association of Hip and Knee Surgeons (AAHKS), what is the recommended pharmacological strategy for routine venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis in a standard-risk patient undergoing primary THA?

. Warfarin with an INR target of 2.0-3.0 for 4 weeks
. Aspirin 81 mg twice daily for 2 to 6 weeks
. Therapeutic enoxaparin bridging
. Intravenous unfractionated heparin
. Mechanical prophylaxis alone (SCDs)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aspirin 81 mg twice daily for 2 to 6 weeks


Explanation

Recent AAOS/AAHKS guidelines strongly support the use of aspirin for VTE prophylaxis in standard-risk patients undergoing primary total joint arthroplasty, owing to its efficacy and lower risk of major bleeding compared to potent anticoagulants.

Question 8714

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 28-year-old professional hockey player presents with gradual onset of anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation.

A cross-table lateral radiograph reveals a prominent bump at the anterolateral head-neck junction. Which of the following intra-articular damage patterns is most characteristic of this specific morphology?

. Posteroinferior acetabular cartilage delamination
. Chondral damage primarily isolated to the femoral head
. Anterosuperior acetabular cartilage delamination with labral detachment
. Global full-thickness cartilage loss with subchondral cysts
. Isolated ligamentum teres tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior acetabular cartilage delamination with labral detachment


Explanation

Cam impingement (characterized by a prominent bump at the head-neck junction) causes significant shear forces on the anterosuperior acetabular rim during flexion and internal rotation. This classically results in acetabular cartilage delamination and separation of the labrum from the adjacent articular cartilage.

Question 8715

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) to the hip for total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon develops the internervous plane between the sartorius and the tensor fasciae latae. Which of the following structures is at greatest risk of injury during the superficial dissection of this approach?

. Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Profunda femoris artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve crosses the operative field within the superficial fascia during the anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach. Careful blunt dissection and medial retraction are required to prevent neuropraxia or transection, which can cause anterolateral thigh numbness.

Question 8716

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 40-year-old man sustains a transverse acetabular fracture with significant posterior wall comminution. Which of the following surgical approaches provides the optimal visualization for direct reduction and fixation of the primary displaced components in this fracture pattern?

. Ilioinguinal approach
. Kocher-Langenbeck approach
. Modified Stoppa approach
. Smith-Petersen approach
. Watson-Jones approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kocher-Langenbeck approach


Explanation

The Kocher-Langenbeck approach is the standard workhorse approach for posterior wall and posterior column fractures. It is also indicated for transverse fractures where the main displacement and comminution involve the posterior wall.

Question 8717

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During hip arthroscopy, excessive traction or prolonged operative time in the supine position most commonly causes neurapraxia to which of the following nerves?

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Pudendal nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pudendal nerve


Explanation

Pudendal nerve neurapraxia is a well-documented complication of hip arthroscopy due to compression against the perineal post. Minimizing traction time and using a well-padded post or post-less distraction system reduces this risk.

Question 8718

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

Which of the following best describes the true internervous plane utilized during the direct anterior approach to the hip?

. Between the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal n.) and sartorius (femoral n.)
. Between the gluteus medius (superior gluteal n.) and tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal n.)
. Between the rectus femoris (femoral n.) and vastus lateralis (femoral n.)
. Between the gluteus maximus (inferior gluteal n.) and gluteus medius (superior gluteal n.)
. Between the sartorius (femoral n.) and rectus femoris (femoral n.)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal n.) and sartorius (femoral n.)


Explanation

The direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach uses a superficial internervous plane between the sartorius (supplied by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (supplied by the superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane is between the rectus femoris and gluteus medius.

Question 8719

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient complains of an inability to dorsiflex their foot immediately following a revision THA performed via a posterior approach. The operative report notes that the leg was lengthened by 3.5 cm to achieve stability. Which specific neural structure is most likely injured?

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve


Explanation

The common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is tethered at the fibular head and has fewer protective connective tissue elements than the tibial division. It is highly susceptible to stretch injuries, presenting as a foot drop, especially when the limb is lengthened by more than 2 to 3 cm.

Question 8720

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A surgeon is performing a primary total hip arthroplasty using the direct anterior approach. To access the hip joint, the superficial surgical dissection utilizes an internervous plane between which two muscles?

. Tensor fasciae latae and gluteus medius
. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
. Rectus femoris and vastus lateralis
. Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
. Pectineus and adductor longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae


Explanation

The direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach utilizes a true internervous plane between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve).