Menu

Question 741

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 62-year-old smoker with a 2-day history of cough and fever is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided pneumonia and left-sided pleural effusion up to the 6th intercostal space. Pleural fluid is aspirated and sent for tests. Which one of the following is an indication for inserting a chest drain?
. Bloodstained pleural fluid
. Pleural fluid glucose > 2 mmol/l
. Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase > 200 IU/l
. Pleural fluid pH < 7.2
. Serous pleural fluid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pleural fluid pH < 7.2


Explanation

Correct Answer: D - Pleural fluid pH < 7.2. Pleural effusions should be drained when the fluid is infected, when the pH is < 7.2, when a Gram stain shows the presence of organisms, when the fluid is frankly purulent, or when clinical improvement is slow despite antibiotic therapy. Bloodstained fluid, glucose > 2 mmol/l, LDH > 200 IU/l, and serous fluid are not specific indications for chest drain insertion.

Question 742

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 50-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents with a chronic, non-healing ulcer on the plantar aspect of his foot. Probe-to-bone testing is positive. Which imaging modality is the most specific for confirming osteomyelitis in this setting?

. Plain radiographs
. Technetium-99m bone scan
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
. Computed tomography (CT)
. Indium-111 labeled white blood cell scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)


Explanation

MRI is highly sensitive and specific for detecting osteomyelitis, particularly in the diabetic foot. It provides superior anatomical detail and can clearly differentiate between bone infection, marrow edema, and surrounding soft tissue infection.

Question 743

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 72-year-old woman with a recent distal radius fracture has a DEXA T-score of -3.1 at the lumbar spine. She is started on teriparatide therapy. What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?

. Inhibits the osteoclast ruffled border
. Binds RANKL to prevent osteoclast activation
. Stimulates osteoblast activity via intermittent PTH receptor activation
. Cross-links collagen fibers to increase bone matrix density
. Inhibits sclerostin to promote Wnt signaling

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stimulates osteoblast activity via intermittent PTH receptor activation


Explanation

Teriparatide is a recombinant human parathyroid hormone (PTH 1-34) analog. When administered intermittently, it acts as an anabolic agent by directly stimulating osteoblast activity and increasing new bone formation.

Question 744

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 55-year-old man develops acute monoarticular knee pain and profound swelling on postoperative day 3 following a lumbar fusion. Joint aspirate reveals a WBC count of 45,000 cells/mm3 and negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals. Which medication is most appropriate for the immediate acute management of this joint?

. Allopurinol
. Indomethacin
. Probenecid
. Methotrexate
. Febuxostat

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Indomethacin


Explanation

The aspirate findings are diagnostic of an acute gout flare caused by monosodium urate crystals. NSAIDs like indomethacin, or alternatively colchicine or intra-articular steroids, are first-line treatments for acute flares, whereas allopurinol is reserved for chronic prevention.

Question 745

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

An 82-year-old woman falls and sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. She takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation, and her admission INR is 3.5. Which of the following is the most appropriate agent to reverse her coagulopathy for urgent surgical intervention?

. Oral Vitamin K
. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
. Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
. Protamine sulfate
. Cryoprecipitate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)


Explanation

Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) provides the most rapid and effective reversal of warfarin-induced coagulopathy. It contains factors II, VII, IX, and X, allowing for prompt normalization of the INR prior to urgent orthopedic surgery.

Question 746

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 65-year-old man is prescribed rivaroxaban for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis following a total hip arthroplasty. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
. Direct thrombin inhibitor
. Vitamin K epoxide reductase antagonist
. Direct Factor Xa inhibitor
. Indirect Factor Xa inhibitor via antithrombin III
. Platelet ADP receptor antagonist

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Direct Factor Xa inhibitor


Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Rivaroxaban is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits Factor Xa. Unlike low molecular weight heparins, it does not require antithrombin III for its anticoagulant activity.

Question 747

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 45-year-old woman presents with diffuse bone pain and proximal muscle weakness. Laboratory studies show low normal serum calcium, low phosphorus, elevated alkaline phosphatase, and elevated parathyroid hormone. Radiographs reveal radiolucent bands perpendicular to the bone cortex. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoporosis
. Paget's disease
. Osteomalacia
. Primary hyperparathyroidism
. Renal osteodystrophy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteomalacia


Explanation

The clinical and laboratory profile (indicating secondary hyperparathyroidism due to Vitamin D deficiency) combined with radiolucent bands (Looser zones or pseudofractures) is classic for osteomalacia. Osteomalacia is characterized by the defective mineralization of newly formed osteoid.

Question 748

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 68-year-old man presents with progressive bowing of his right tibia and an increasing hat size. Radiographs of the skull show "cotton wool" exudates, and the tibia shows pronounced cortical thickening. Which of the following best describes the classic histologic appearance of his bone?

. Prominent cement lines in a mosaic pattern
. Thin trabeculae with normal mineralization
. Abundant unmineralized osteoid seams
. Granulomas with caseating necrosis
. Neoplastic spindle cells producing osteoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prominent cement lines in a mosaic pattern


Explanation

The patient has Paget's disease of bone, which is characterized by chaotic and excessive bone remodeling. Histologically, this is represented by prominent, disorganized cement lines creating a classic "mosaic" or "jigsaw puzzle" pattern of woven and lamellar bone.

Question 749

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 12-year-old boy with sickle cell disease presents with fever, severe left thigh pain, and a limp. An MRI shows diffuse bone marrow edema with a subperiosteal fluid collection. Blood cultures are drawn. While Staphylococcus aureus is the most common overall cause, which organism is characteristically associated with this specific patient population?

. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Escherichia coli
. Salmonella typhimurium
. Streptococcus pneumoniae
. Haemophilus influenzae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Salmonella typhimurium


Explanation

Patients with sickle cell disease are particularly susceptible to Salmonella osteomyelitis due to autosplenectomy and impaired macrophage function. However, Staphylococcus aureus still remains the most common overall infecting organism.

Question 750

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 14-year-old boy with Hemophilia A presents with recurrent severe hemarthroses of the right knee. Which of the following describes the primary mechanism of joint destruction in hemophilic arthropathy?

. Urate crystal deposition triggering inflammation
. Direct bacterial invasion of articular cartilage
. Hemosiderin-induced chondrocyte apoptosis
. Autoimmune T-cell targeting of synovial tissue
. Dysplastic development of the secondary ossification center

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemosiderin-induced chondrocyte apoptosis


Explanation

Recurrent bleeding into the joint leads to pronounced synovial hypertrophy and deposition of iron (hemosiderin). This iron accumulation induces oxidative stress and stimulates enzymes that cause direct chondrocyte apoptosis and progressive cartilage destruction.

Question 751

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 4-year-old boy with a history of multiple low-energy fractures presents with a new diaphyseal femur fracture. On examination, he has blue sclerae and mild hearing loss. Radiographs show generalized osteopenia and severe bowing of the long bones. Which class of medication is commonly used to decrease fracture incidence in this condition?

. Selective estrogen receptor modulators
. Bisphosphonates
. Recombinant parathyroid hormone
. Sclerostin inhibitors
. Vitamin D analogues

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bisphosphonates


Explanation

The patient has Osteogenesis Imperfecta, typically caused by an autosomal dominant defect in Type 1 collagen. Intravenous bisphosphonates (e.g., pamidronate) are the mainstay of medical therapy to increase bone mineral density and reduce the frequency of fractures in these children.

Question 752

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Which of the following mechanical factors provides the primary stimulus for secondary bone healing characterized by robust callus formation?

. Absolute stability
. High oxygen tension
. Interfragmentary micro-motion
. Compression plating
. Intramembranous ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Interfragmentary micro-motion


Explanation

Secondary bone healing (via callus formation and endochondral ossification) requires relative stability with interfragmentary micro-motion. Absolute stability, such as that provided by compression plating, leads to primary bone healing without callus.

Question 753

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials

Which biomechanical property of titanium makes it highly advantageous for use in uncemented orthopedic implants compared to stainless steel or cobalt-chrome alloys?

. Higher modulus of elasticity
. Lower modulus of elasticity
. Higher galvanic corrosion rate
. Inability to osseointegrate
. Increased radiopacity on MRI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower modulus of elasticity


Explanation

Titanium has a lower modulus of elasticity compared to cobalt-chrome or stainless steel, making it closer to the stiffness of cortical bone. This reduces stress shielding and promotes better load sharing and osseointegration.

Question 754

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Which zone of normal articular cartilage contains the highest concentration of water and has collagen fibers oriented parallel to the joint surface to resist shear forces?

. Superficial zone
. Middle (transitional) zone
. Deep (radial) zone
. Calcified cartilage zone
. Tidemark

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial zone


Explanation

The superficial (tangential) zone of articular cartilage has the highest water content and lowest proteoglycan concentration. Its densely packed collagen fibers run parallel to the surface to provide vital resistance against shear stress.

Question 755

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 32-year-old woman presents with a radiolucent, eccentric, epiphyseal-metaphyseal lesion in her proximal tibia. Biopsy shows multinucleated giant cells admixed with mononuclear stromal cells. If systemic therapy is indicated, which of the following mechanisms best describes the targeted biologic agent commonly used?

. Inhibition of the mTOR pathway
. Binding to RANKL to prevent osteoclast activation
. Inhibition of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Direct apoptosis of multinucleated giant cells
. Stimulation of osteoprotegerin (OPG) production

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Binding to RANKL to prevent osteoclast activation


Explanation

Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to RANKL, preventing it from activating RANK on the surface of osteoclasts and their precursors. In giant cell tumors of bone, the neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells express RANKL, which recruits the reactive multinucleated giant cells.

Question 756

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A neonate is evaluated for multiple fractures and cranial nerve palsies. Radiographs show diffusely dense, 'bone-within-bone' appearance in the vertebrae and long bones. A defect in which of the following enzymes or proteins is most likely responsible for this condition?

. Alkaline phosphatase
. Type I collagen
. Carbonic anhydrase II
. Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3
. Glucocerebrosidase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Carbonic anhydrase II


Explanation

Osteopetrosis results from defective osteoclast resorption, often due to a deficiency in carbonic anhydrase II or TCIRG1 mutations. This leads to an inability to acidify Howship's lacuna, preventing the breakdown of bone matrix and resulting in dense, brittle bones.

Question 757

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive bowing of his right femur and increasing head size. Laboratory studies show markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase with normal calcium and phosphorus. Histological examination of the affected bone is most likely to show which of the following?

. Woven bone with empty lacunae
. Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone with prominent cement lines
. Sheets of plasma cells with amyloid deposition
. Atypical chondrocytes in a hyaline matrix
. Extensive replacement of marrow space by uniform small cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone with prominent cement lines


Explanation

Paget disease of bone is characterized by chaotic bone remodeling. The classic histologic hallmark is a mosaic pattern of lamellar bone with prominent cement lines due to irregular, rapid episodes of bone resorption and formation.

Question 758

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A newborn is noted to have rhizomelic shortening of the limbs, frontal bossing, and midface hypoplasia. Genetic testing reveals a gain-of-function mutation in the FGFR3 gene. Which of the following best describes the fundamental defect in bone formation in this condition?

. Defective intramembranous ossification
. Impaired proliferation and hypertrophy of chondrocytes in the physis
. Defective production of type I collagen
. Inadequate mineralization of osteoid
. Overactivity of osteoclasts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Impaired proliferation and hypertrophy of chondrocytes in the physis


Explanation

Achondroplasia is caused by an activating mutation in FGFR3, which paradoxically inhibits chondrocyte proliferation and hypertrophy in the growth plate. This selectively impairs enchondral ossification, leading to short long bones, while intramembranous ossification (cranial vault) remains relatively unaffected.

Question 759

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 36-year-old primary schoolteacher who works in a deprived area of London presents with increasing shortness of breath accompanied by sudden-onset, right-sided pleuritic chest pain. She gives a history of influenza for a few days before this acute presentation and also says she suffered a pulmonary embolus 2 years ago while taking the contraceptive pill (and describes her pain as identical to that she experienced on that occasion). On further questioning, it transpires that her mother had suffered from recurrent deep vein thrombosis. Arterial blood gases reveal a pO2 of 7.2 kPa on a non-rebreather mask, with a pCO2 of 3.2 kPa. Her chest X-ray reveals a wedge-shaped area of consolidation affecting her right middle and lower lobes. The white blood cell count is normal. Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
. Bronchial carcinoma
. Pneumothorax
. Recurrent pulmonary embolism
. Staphylococcal pneumonia
. Tuberculosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recurrent pulmonary embolism


Explanation

The suspicion, given that this patient has had a previous pulmonary embolism while taking the oral contraceptive pill, is that she has an inherited disorder of clotting (e.g., Factor V Leiden, Protein C or Antithrombin III deficiency). The clinical presentation and history are highly suggestive of a recurrent event.

Question 760

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 60-year-old patient was referred with a 1-year history of persistent cough productive of mucopurulent sputum throughout the year. He has been treated by his GP for recurrent chest infections. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Allergic asthma
. Bronchiectasis
. Carcinoma of the lung
. Interstitial lung disease
. Sarcoidosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bronchiectasis


Explanation

Correct Answer: B - Bronchiectasis. Bronchiectasis should be suspected when there is a history of persistent cough productive of mucopurulent or purulent sputum throughout the year. Patients have frequently been treated for recurrent chest infections and labeled as 'bronchitic', often despite the absence of a history of smoking.