This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 7001
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 42-year-old man is undergoing an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis. The surgeon makes an incision in the axillary fold and exposes the intertubercular groove. Which nerve is most at risk of injury during medial retraction of the conjoint tendon in this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
During a subpectoral biceps tenodesis, vigorous medial retraction of the short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis (conjoint tendon) puts the musculocutaneous nerve at high risk, as it penetrates the coracobrachialis nearby.
Question 7002
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a deltopectoral approach for a proximal humerus fracture, the axillary nerve must be protected. Which of the following describes its anatomical course relative to the shoulder joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior to the subscapularis muscle belly
Explanation
The axillary nerve runs inferior to the joint capsule and exits the axilla posteriorly through the quadrilateral space. It is particularly at risk during inferior capsular releases or inferior retractor placement.
Question 7003
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
Following an acute anterior shoulder dislocation, a 24-year-old male is unable to actively elevate his arm and reports numbness over the lateral aspect of his shoulder. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The axillary nerve is the most frequently injured nerve during anterior shoulder dislocations. It innervates the deltoid and teres minor and provides sensation to the lateral shoulder (superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm).
Question 7004
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Recent quantitative anatomic studies have demonstrated that the predominant arterial blood supply to the humeral head is derived from which of the following vessels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
Explanation
Historically, the anterior circumflex humeral artery (arcuate branch) was thought to be the primary supply. However, recent quantitative studies have shown the posterior circumflex humeral artery actually provides the predominant blood supply to the humeral head.
Question 7005
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 30-year-old male powerlifter feels a "pop" in his anterior axilla while bench pressing. Examination reveals an asymmetric anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. MRI confirms a complete avulsion of the pectoralis major tendon from the humerus. Which of the following statements regarding the relevant anatomy and repair is TRUE?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Surgical repair is primarily indicated for cosmetic purposes as functional deficit is minimal.
Explanation
The pectoralis major consists of a clavicular and sternocostal head. The sternocostal head undergoes a 180-degree twist such that its fibers insert deep and proximal to the superficial and distal clavicular fibers. Surgical repair in active individuals significantly improves internal rotation strength and cosmesis.
Question 7006
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation with a concomitant greater tuberosity fracture. Following closed reduction, the patient is unable to actively abduct the shoulder and has diminished sensation over the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Injury to which of the following nerves is most likely?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in anterior shoulder dislocations, particularly those associated with greater tuberosity fractures. It innervates the deltoid and teres minor and provides sensation to the lateral shoulder via the superior lateral brachial cutaneous nerve.
Question 7007
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 30-year-old male weightlifter felt a "pop" in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Exam shows loss of the normal anterior axillary fold contour. When considering the relevant surgical anatomy for repair, the sternal head of the pectoralis major tendon normally inserts in what position relative to the clavicular head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal and anterior
Explanation
The pectoralis major tendon twists 180 degrees before its insertion onto the lateral lip of the bicipital groove. Consequently, the inferior (sternocostal) fibers insert proximal and deep (posterior) to the superior (clavicular) fibers.
Question 7008
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 28-year-old competitive weightlifter experiences a tearing sensation in his anterior chest wall during a heavy bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. In a typical pectoralis major rupture, which head of the muscle tears most commonly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clavicular head
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures typically occur during eccentric contraction (e.g., bench press). The sternal (sternocostal) head is most frequently injured, often avulsing from its insertion on the proximal humerus.
Question 7009
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 19-year-old male sustains a posterior sternoclavicular dislocation during a rugby match. He presents to the ER with mild dyspnea and dysphagia. What is the most critical next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate closed reduction in the emergency room under conscious sedation
Explanation
Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations can cause life-threatening compression of mediastinal structures. A CT scan with IV contrast (or CT angiogram) is essential to evaluate the great vessels before any reduction attempt.
Question 7010
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an open repair of a massive, retracted subscapularis tendon tear, extensive medial mobilization of the muscle belly is required. Which neural structure is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during this mobilization?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
The upper and lower subscapular nerves innervate the subscapularis muscle and enter the anterior muscle belly medially. Extensive medial mobilization, especially past the conjoined tendon, places these nerves at significant risk of traction or transection injury.
Question 7011
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Following a standard arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, by which histological mechanism does the tendon primarily heal to the greater tuberosity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Direct insertion with restoration of four distinct transition zones
Explanation
Current rotator cuff repair techniques heal primarily by indirect insertion via a fibrovascular scar. They rarely recreate the native direct insertion, which normally consists of four distinct zones: tendon, uncalcified fibrocartilage, calcified fibrocartilage, and bone.
Question 7012
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 50-year-old male arrives in the emergency department with an acute anterior shoulder dislocation after a fall. Following successful closed reduction, he reports a patch of numbness over the lateral aspect of his shoulder and exhibits weakness when attempting to actively abduct the arm. Which nerve is most commonly injured in this injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
The axillary nerve is the most frequently injured nerve in anterior shoulder dislocations. It presents clinically with weakness of the deltoid (abduction) and numbness over the lateral shoulder (the "regimental badge" area).
Question 7013
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a Latarjet procedure, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. Which of the following nerves is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the coracoid mobilization and transfer?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis muscle typically 3 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid tip. It is at significant risk of traction or transection injury during mobilization and transfer of the conjoined tendon in a Latarjet procedure.
Question 7014
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old overhead athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness of the deltoid and teres minor. An MRI demonstrates isolated muscular atrophy and localized vascular compression in the posterior shoulder. This syndrome is caused by compression of structures within boundaries that include all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor
Explanation
Quadrilateral space syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. The boundaries are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of triceps (medial), and surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).
Question 7015
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 28-year-old weightlifter feels a sudden 'pop' in his axilla while performing a heavy bench press. He presents with extensive ecchymosis and loss of the anterior axillary fold. If a complete rupture of the pectoralis major occurred, which portion is typically the first to fail due to maximal eccentric stretch?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clavicular head at the muscle belly
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures commonly occur at the humeral insertion during eccentric contraction (e.g., bench pressing). The sternal head inserts deep and proximal to the clavicular head, placing it under maximal tension when the arm is extended and externally rotated, causing it to tear first.
Question 7016
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The Latarjet procedure involves the transfer of the coracoid process with the attached conjoint tendon to the anterior glenoid neck. Which nerve is most at risk during the transfer and retraction of the conjoint tendon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle 3-5 cm distal to the coracoid tip. Vigorous medial retraction of the conjoint tendon during a Latarjet procedure places this nerve at high risk for neuropraxia.
Question 7017
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Which of the following manufacturing processes is most effective at reducing the wear rate of ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) while minimizing the risk of long-term in vivo oxidation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gamma irradiation in air followed by shelf storage
Explanation
High-dose irradiation cross-links UHMWPE, significantly improving its wear resistance. Subsequent thermal remelting extinguishes residual free radicals trapped in the crystalline regions, preventing long-term in vivo oxidation, although it slightly decreases fatigue strength.
Question 7018
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Which of the following molecules acts as an endogenous soluble decoy receptor to inhibit osteoclastogenesis by binding to RANK Ligand (RANKL)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)
Explanation
Osteoprotegerin (OPG) is secreted by osteoblasts and acts as a soluble decoy receptor for RANKL. By binding RANKL, OPG prevents it from interacting with RANK on osteoclast precursors, thereby inhibiting osteoclast activation and bone resorption.
Question 7019
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
A dynamic splint is applied to a patient's elbow to treat a flexion contracture. Over time, the tension in the elastic band of the splint decreases despite the elbow remaining locked in the exact same position. This viscoelastic phenomenon is best described as:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Creep
Explanation
Stress relaxation is the time-dependent decrease in stress (tension) within a viscoelastic material when it is held at a constant strain (deformation). Creep, in contrast, is the progressive deformation of a material over time under a constant load.
Question 7020
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
The combination of a titanium femoral stem and a cobalt-chromium femoral head in total hip arthroplasty relies on a passivation layer to resist corrosion. If this oxide layer is repeatedly breached by micromotion at the head-neck junction, the resulting degradation is most accurately termed:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Galvanic corrosion
Explanation
Fretting corrosion occurs when micromotion between two metal surfaces mechanically strips the protective oxide (passivation) layer, leading to accelerated electrochemical degradation. This combined mechanical and chemical process is the primary mechanism of trunnionosis in modular hip arthroplasty.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.