This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6961
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old restrained driver in a motor vehicle collision sustains a traumatic posterior hip dislocation. Following successful closed reduction, the patient exhibits weak ankle dorsiflexion and decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot. Which nerve division is most commonly injured in this injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
Explanation
The peroneal (fibular) division of the sciatic nerve is most commonly injured during posterior hip dislocations. Its lateral position and relatively fixed tethering at the sciatic notch make it more vulnerable to stretch than the tibial division.
Question 6962
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 72-year-old female on alendronate for 8 years presents with a transverse, minimally displaced subtrochanteric femur fracture after a ground-level fall. Radiographs of the contralateral asymptomatic femur show lateral cortical thickening and a 'beaked' appearance. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cephalomedullary nailing of the fractured side only
Explanation
Atypical femur fractures from prolonged bisphosphonate use are frequently bilateral. Prophylactic fixation of the contralateral side is strongly recommended when there is radiographic evidence of a stress reaction (lateral cortical thickening) and impending failure.
Question 6963
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 19-year-old football player complains of dyspnea, dysphagia, and right-sided neck pain after being tackled. Examination reveals a palpable depression at the right medial clavicle.
What is the most appropriate management plan?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate closed reduction in the emergency department using traction
Explanation
Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations are orthopedic emergencies due to potential compression of the trachea, esophagus, and great vessels. Because of the high risk of catastrophic vascular injury during reduction, it must be performed in the OR with cardiothoracic surgery available.
Question 6964
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During open reduction and internal fixation of a volar Barton's fracture, the surgeon decides to use a classic volar Henry approach. Which surgical interval is primarily utilized for this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Between flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis
Explanation
The classic volar Henry approach to the distal radius uses the internervous plane between the flexor carpi radialis (median nerve) and the brachioradialis (radial nerve). The radial artery is carefully identified and retracted radially with the brachioradialis.
Question 6965
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
What is the optimal surgical approach to directly visualize and buttress a posteromedial shear fragment in a bicondylar tibial plateau fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterolateral approach
Explanation
A posteromedial shear fragment must be buttressed from behind to prevent varus collapse and subluxation. This is best achieved via a direct posteromedial approach, utilizing the interval between the medial gastrocnemius and the pes anserinus.
Question 6966
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 42-year-old farmer sustains an open grade IIIB tibia fracture after his leg is caught in a tractor mechanism. Visible soil and organic debris contaminate the wound. What is the most appropriate initial intravenous antibiotic regimen?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cefazolin alone
Explanation
For severe open fractures with heavy farm or soil contamination, the standard recommendation is triple antibiotic coverage. This includes a first-generation cephalosporin, an aminoglycoside for Gram-negative coverage, and high-dose penicillin to cover Clostridium species.
Question 6967
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 65-year-old woman presents with vague thigh pain. Radiographs demonstrate an impending subtrochanteric atypical femur fracture characterized by lateral cortical thickening. She has been on alendronate for 10 years. What is the most appropriate initial medical management alongside prophylactic intramedullary nailing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Continue alendronate and add calcium/vitamin D
Explanation
Management of bisphosphonate-related atypical femur fractures requires immediate discontinuation of the offending bisphosphonate. Teriparatide, an anabolic parathyroid hormone analog, is frequently recommended to aid in the healing of these specific fractures.
Question 6968
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 68-year-old female presents with thigh pain and a low-energy subtrochanteric femur fracture. A representative radiograph is shown, demonstrating lateral cortical thickening and a transverse fracture pattern with a medial spike.
Which of the following medications is most strongly associated with this injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teriparatide
Explanation
Atypical femur fractures are associated with long-term bisphosphonate therapy (e.g., alendronate) which suppresses osteoclast activity and severely decreases bone turnover. The characteristic radiographic appearance includes a transverse fracture of the lateral cortex with a medial spike.
Question 6969
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 65-year-old female with an 8-year history of alendronate use presents with a 3-month history of progressive thigh pain. Radiographs reveal lateral cortical thickening and an incomplete transverse radiolucent line in the subtrochanteric region of the femur.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Discontinue alendronate and observe with protected weight-bearing
Explanation
Symptomatic incomplete atypical femur fractures associated with long-term bisphosphonate use are at high risk for completion. They should be treated with discontinuation of the offending agent and prophylactic intramedullary nailing.
Question 6970
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 78-year-old female presents with acute, severe mid-back pain after a minor fall. Radiographs show an acute L1 compression fracture with 30% loss of anterior height. Neurologic exam is intact. After 6 weeks of conservative management including bracing and analgesics, she continues to have debilitating pain. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior instrumented fusion from T11 to L3
Explanation
Cement augmentation (kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty) is indicated for symptomatic osteoporotic compression fractures that fail a trial of conservative management (typically 4-6 weeks) and show ongoing marrow edema on MRI.
Question 6971
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 65-year-old man with pre-existing cervical spondylosis presents after a hyperextension injury. He has 2/5 motor strength in his upper extremities and 4/5 motor strength in his lower extremities. Sensory exam shows patchy deficits. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cord syndrome
Explanation
Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in a patient with a stenotic cervical canal. It presents with disproportionately greater motor weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities.
Question 6972
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 75-year-old woman with severe osteoporosis presents with a 2-week history of severe mechanical thoracic back pain. Radiographs show a T7 compression fracture with 30% loss of height. She is neurologically intact. She has failed bracing and opioid analgesia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior spinal fusion from T5 to T9
Explanation
Vertebral augmentation is indicated for osteoporotic compression fractures in patients who have intractable pain failing conservative management. It provides rapid pain relief and facilitates early mobilization, decreasing the risks of prolonged bed rest.
Question 6973
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 55-year-old man with iatrogenic flatback syndrome requires surgical correction. The surgeon plans a single-level procedure to achieve approximately 30 to 35 degrees of sagittal correction. Which of the following osteotomies is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Multiple Smith-Petersen osteotomies (SPOs)
Explanation
A pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO) is a three-column wedge osteotomy that hinges on the anterior cortex, typically providing about 30 degrees of lordosis at a single level. SPOs provide ~10 degrees per level, while VCRs are reserved for severe, rigid, multi-planar deformities.
Question 6974
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 72-year-old woman with osteoporosis presents with an acute T12 compression fracture. She has severe pain refractory to 6 weeks of maximal medical management and bracing.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior corpectomy and fusion
Explanation
Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are indicated for symptomatic osteoporotic compression fractures causing severe pain that is refractory to 4-6 weeks of conservative management.
Question 6975
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 75-year-old woman with severe osteoporosis presents with an acute, painful T12 compression fracture. She has failed 6 weeks of aggressive conservative management, including bracing and narcotic analgesics. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior corpectomy and fusion
Explanation
Balloon kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty is indicated for osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures that remain persistently painful and functionally debilitating despite a 4-6 week trial of comprehensive conservative management.
Question 6976
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
Examination of a 30-year-old professional singer who has persistent neck and shoulder pain reveals a positive Hoffman's sign and clonus because of anterior C2-3 cord compression. The MRI scan shown in Figure 11a and the cervical CT scan shown in Figure 11b reveal focal anterior cord compression at the C2-3 level. Which of the following surgical approaches would least affect her professional career?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transoral, transmucosal direct anterior approach to C2-3
Explanation
Protection of the superior laryngeal nerve is critical in a professional singer. The nerve is easily injured with retraction when using vertical extension of common anterior surgical approaches to gain exposure to the C2-3 level. McAfee and associates reported on 17 patients with C1-2 and C2-3 pathology. They used a modified submandibular approach as an anterior retropharyngeal exposure with modification of the superior extension of the Smith-Robinson technique that allows visualization of the superior laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures. No incidences of superior laryngeal nerve injury were recorded. The transoral approach should be avoided because of the high rate of infection and limited exposure. McAfee PC, Bohlman HH, Reilly LH Jr, Robinson RA, Southwick WO, Nachlas NE: The anterior retropharyngeal approach to the upper part of the cervical spine. J Bone Joint Surgery Am 1987;69:1371-1383.
Question 6977
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 45-year-old male undergoes an L4-L5 microdiscectomy. During the procedure, brisk arterial bleeding is encountered from the anterior aspect of the disc space following the use of pituitary rongeurs, and the patient suddenly becomes hypotensive. Which of the following vascular structures was most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Aorta
Explanation
The aorta typically bifurcates at the L4 vertebral body level. Therefore, at the L4-L5 disc space, the common iliac arteries are located directly anterior to the annulus, making them highly susceptible to iatrogenic injury during anterior penetration.
Question 6978
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 70-year-old man with a known history of severe cervical stenosis is involved in a rear-end motor vehicle collision, resulting in a hyperextension injury. He presents to the ED with 1/5 motor strength in his bilateral upper extremities and 4/5 strength in his lower extremities. Proprioception and perianal sensation are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cord syndrome
Explanation
Central cord syndrome typically occurs after hyperextension injuries in older patients with pre-existing cervical spondylosis. The classic presentation involves disproportionately greater motor weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities.
Question 6979
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
In the treatment of osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures, which of the following is a known absolute contraindication for balloon kyphoplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fracture age greater than 4 weeks
Explanation
Active systemic infection or local osteomyelitis at the fracture site is an absolute contraindication for kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty due to the risk of seeding the infection or exacerbating osteomyelitis.
Question 6980
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 2-year-old boy has been referred for musculoskeletal evaluation. Examination reveals shortened proximal limbs, hip and knee flexion contractures, an abducted thumb, and ear abnormalities. His parents are concerned about his deformed feet. What is the most common foot deformity associated with this patient's diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pes calcaneovalgus
Explanation
The patient has diastrophic dysplasia. Affected individuals have rhizomelic short stature, cauliflower ears, severe joint contractures (especially knees and hips), hitchhiker's thumb, and a cleft palate. The most common foot abnormality is a rigid equinovarus deformity. Surgical results are poorer than those for idiopathic clubfeet and often require bony procedures or talectomy. Ryoppy S, Poussa M, Merikanto J, Marttinen E, Kaitila I: Foot deformities in diastrophic dysplasia: An analysis of 102 patients. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1992;74:441-444.
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