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Question 6961

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old restrained driver in a motor vehicle collision sustains a traumatic posterior hip dislocation. Following successful closed reduction, the patient exhibits weak ankle dorsiflexion and decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot. Which nerve division is most commonly injured in this injury pattern?

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve


Explanation

The peroneal (fibular) division of the sciatic nerve is most commonly injured during posterior hip dislocations. Its lateral position and relatively fixed tethering at the sciatic notch make it more vulnerable to stretch than the tibial division.

Question 6962

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 72-year-old female on alendronate for 8 years presents with a transverse, minimally displaced subtrochanteric femur fracture after a ground-level fall. Radiographs of the contralateral asymptomatic femur show lateral cortical thickening and a 'beaked' appearance. What is the most appropriate management?

. Cephalomedullary nailing of the fractured side only
. Cephalomedullary nailing of the fractured side and prophylactic nailing of the contralateral side
. Lateral locking plate fixation of the fractured side
. Discontinue bisphosphonate and start high-dose calcium only
. Bilateral proximal femoral replacements

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cephalomedullary nailing of the fractured side only


Explanation

Atypical femur fractures from prolonged bisphosphonate use are frequently bilateral. Prophylactic fixation of the contralateral side is strongly recommended when there is radiographic evidence of a stress reaction (lateral cortical thickening) and impending failure.

Question 6963

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 19-year-old football player complains of dyspnea, dysphagia, and right-sided neck pain after being tackled. Examination reveals a palpable depression at the right medial clavicle.

What is the most appropriate management plan?

. Immediate closed reduction in the emergency department using traction
. CT of the chest and reduction in the OR with cardiothoracic surgery backup
. MRI of the brachial plexus to evaluate for nerve root avulsion
. Application of a figure-of-eight brace and early observation
. Immediate medial clavicle resection (Waite procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate closed reduction in the emergency department using traction


Explanation

Posterior sternoclavicular dislocations are orthopedic emergencies due to potential compression of the trachea, esophagus, and great vessels. Because of the high risk of catastrophic vascular injury during reduction, it must be performed in the OR with cardiothoracic surgery available.

Question 6964

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During open reduction and internal fixation of a volar Barton's fracture, the surgeon decides to use a classic volar Henry approach. Which surgical interval is primarily utilized for this approach?

. Between flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis
. Between brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
. Between flexor carpi radialis and the radial artery
. Between palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis
. Between extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis


Explanation

The classic volar Henry approach to the distal radius uses the internervous plane between the flexor carpi radialis (median nerve) and the brachioradialis (radial nerve). The radial artery is carefully identified and retracted radially with the brachioradialis.

Question 6965

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

What is the optimal surgical approach to directly visualize and buttress a posteromedial shear fragment in a bicondylar tibial plateau fracture?

. Anterolateral approach
. Direct medial approach
. Posteromedial approach
. Posterolateral approach
. Anterior midline approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral approach


Explanation

A posteromedial shear fragment must be buttressed from behind to prevent varus collapse and subluxation. This is best achieved via a direct posteromedial approach, utilizing the interval between the medial gastrocnemius and the pes anserinus.

Question 6966

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 42-year-old farmer sustains an open grade IIIB tibia fracture after his leg is caught in a tractor mechanism. Visible soil and organic debris contaminate the wound. What is the most appropriate initial intravenous antibiotic regimen?

. Cefazolin alone
. Cefazolin and gentamicin
. Cefazolin and penicillin
. Cefazolin, gentamicin, and penicillin
. Ceftriaxone alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cefazolin alone


Explanation

For severe open fractures with heavy farm or soil contamination, the standard recommendation is triple antibiotic coverage. This includes a first-generation cephalosporin, an aminoglycoside for Gram-negative coverage, and high-dose penicillin to cover Clostridium species.

Question 6967

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 65-year-old woman presents with vague thigh pain. Radiographs demonstrate an impending subtrochanteric atypical femur fracture characterized by lateral cortical thickening. She has been on alendronate for 10 years. What is the most appropriate initial medical management alongside prophylactic intramedullary nailing?

. Continue alendronate and add calcium/vitamin D
. Switch from alendronate to zoledronic acid
. Discontinue alendronate and start teriparatide
. Increase the dose of alendronate to accelerate bone healing
. Discontinue alendronate and start denosumab

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continue alendronate and add calcium/vitamin D


Explanation

Management of bisphosphonate-related atypical femur fractures requires immediate discontinuation of the offending bisphosphonate. Teriparatide, an anabolic parathyroid hormone analog, is frequently recommended to aid in the healing of these specific fractures.

Question 6968

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 68-year-old female presents with thigh pain and a low-energy subtrochanteric femur fracture. A representative radiograph is shown, demonstrating lateral cortical thickening and a transverse fracture pattern with a medial spike.

Which of the following medications is most strongly associated with this injury pattern?

. Teriparatide
. Alendronate
. Methotrexate
. Prednisone
. Denosumab

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teriparatide


Explanation

Atypical femur fractures are associated with long-term bisphosphonate therapy (e.g., alendronate) which suppresses osteoclast activity and severely decreases bone turnover. The characteristic radiographic appearance includes a transverse fracture of the lateral cortex with a medial spike.

Question 6969

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 65-year-old female with an 8-year history of alendronate use presents with a 3-month history of progressive thigh pain. Radiographs reveal lateral cortical thickening and an incomplete transverse radiolucent line in the subtrochanteric region of the femur.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discontinue alendronate and observe with protected weight-bearing
. Discontinue alendronate and perform prophylactic cephalomedullary nailing
. Switch to denosumab and initiate physical therapy
. Immediate open reduction and internal fixation with a dynamic hip screw
. Prescribe a bisphosphonate holiday and obtain a DEXA scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discontinue alendronate and observe with protected weight-bearing


Explanation

Symptomatic incomplete atypical femur fractures associated with long-term bisphosphonate use are at high risk for completion. They should be treated with discontinuation of the offending agent and prophylactic intramedullary nailing.

Question 6970

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 78-year-old female presents with acute, severe mid-back pain after a minor fall. Radiographs show an acute L1 compression fracture with 30% loss of anterior height. Neurologic exam is intact. After 6 weeks of conservative management including bracing and analgesics, she continues to have debilitating pain. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Posterior instrumented fusion from T11 to L3
. Anterior corpectomy and strut grafting
. Kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty
. Teriparatide therapy and discharge
. Laminectomy at L1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior instrumented fusion from T11 to L3


Explanation

Cement augmentation (kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty) is indicated for symptomatic osteoporotic compression fractures that fail a trial of conservative management (typically 4-6 weeks) and show ongoing marrow edema on MRI.

Question 6971

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 65-year-old man with pre-existing cervical spondylosis presents after a hyperextension injury. He has 2/5 motor strength in his upper extremities and 4/5 motor strength in his lower extremities. Sensory exam shows patchy deficits. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Poster cord syndrome
. Conus medullaris syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs after a hyperextension injury in a patient with a stenotic cervical canal. It presents with disproportionately greater motor weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities.

Question 6972

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 75-year-old woman with severe osteoporosis presents with a 2-week history of severe mechanical thoracic back pain. Radiographs show a T7 compression fracture with 30% loss of height. She is neurologically intact. She has failed bracing and opioid analgesia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Posterior spinal fusion from T5 to T9
. Continue conservative management for a total of 6 weeks
. Vertebral augmentation (kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty)
. Anterior corpectomy and plating
. Laminectomy at T7

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior spinal fusion from T5 to T9


Explanation

Vertebral augmentation is indicated for osteoporotic compression fractures in patients who have intractable pain failing conservative management. It provides rapid pain relief and facilitates early mobilization, decreasing the risks of prolonged bed rest.

Question 6973

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 55-year-old man with iatrogenic flatback syndrome requires surgical correction. The surgeon plans a single-level procedure to achieve approximately 30 to 35 degrees of sagittal correction. Which of the following osteotomies is most appropriate?

. Multiple Smith-Petersen osteotomies (SPOs)
. Pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO)
. Vertebral column resection (VCR)
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)
. Gill laminectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Multiple Smith-Petersen osteotomies (SPOs)


Explanation

A pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO) is a three-column wedge osteotomy that hinges on the anterior cortex, typically providing about 30 degrees of lordosis at a single level. SPOs provide ~10 degrees per level, while VCRs are reserved for severe, rigid, multi-planar deformities.

Question 6974

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 72-year-old woman with osteoporosis presents with an acute T12 compression fracture. She has severe pain refractory to 6 weeks of maximal medical management and bracing.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Anterior corpectomy and fusion
. Posterior spinal fusion T10-L2
. Vertebroplasty or kyphoplasty
. Continue bracing for 6 more months
. Teriparatide therapy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior corpectomy and fusion


Explanation

Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are indicated for symptomatic osteoporotic compression fractures causing severe pain that is refractory to 4-6 weeks of conservative management.

Question 6975

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 75-year-old woman with severe osteoporosis presents with an acute, painful T12 compression fracture. She has failed 6 weeks of aggressive conservative management, including bracing and narcotic analgesics. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

. Anterior corpectomy and fusion
. Posterior spinal fusion T10-L2
. Balloon kyphoplasty
. Prolonged bed rest for another 4 weeks
. Teriparatide therapy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior corpectomy and fusion


Explanation

Balloon kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty is indicated for osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures that remain persistently painful and functionally debilitating despite a 4-6 week trial of comprehensive conservative management.

Question 6976

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

Examination of a 30-year-old professional singer who has persistent neck and shoulder pain reveals a positive Hoffman's sign and clonus because of anterior C2-3 cord compression. The MRI scan shown in Figure 11a and the cervical CT scan shown in Figure 11b reveal focal anterior cord compression at the C2-3 level. Which of the following surgical approaches would least affect her professional career?

. Transoral, transmucosal direct anterior approach to C2-3
. Left-sided anterior approach to C2-3 (Smith-Robinson)
. Right-sided posterior retropharyngeal approach to C2-3 (Whitesides)
. Right-sided anterior approach to C2-3 (Smith-Robinson)
. Right-sided anterior retropharyngeal approach with extended vertical incision (superior extension Smith-Robinson)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transoral, transmucosal direct anterior approach to C2-3


Explanation

Protection of the superior laryngeal nerve is critical in a professional singer. The nerve is easily injured with retraction when using vertical extension of common anterior surgical approaches to gain exposure to the C2-3 level. McAfee and associates reported on 17 patients with C1-2 and C2-3 pathology. They used a modified submandibular approach as an anterior retropharyngeal exposure with modification of the superior extension of the Smith-Robinson technique that allows visualization of the superior laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures. No incidences of superior laryngeal nerve injury were recorded. The transoral approach should be avoided because of the high rate of infection and limited exposure. McAfee PC, Bohlman HH, Reilly LH Jr, Robinson RA, Southwick WO, Nachlas NE: The anterior retropharyngeal approach to the upper part of the cervical spine. J Bone Joint Surgery Am 1987;69:1371-1383.

Question 6977

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 45-year-old male undergoes an L4-L5 microdiscectomy. During the procedure, brisk arterial bleeding is encountered from the anterior aspect of the disc space following the use of pituitary rongeurs, and the patient suddenly becomes hypotensive. Which of the following vascular structures was most likely injured?

. Aorta
. Inferior vena cava
. Common iliac artery
. Median sacral artery
. Internal iliac vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aorta


Explanation

The aorta typically bifurcates at the L4 vertebral body level. Therefore, at the L4-L5 disc space, the common iliac arteries are located directly anterior to the annulus, making them highly susceptible to iatrogenic injury during anterior penetration.

Question 6978

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 70-year-old man with a known history of severe cervical stenosis is involved in a rear-end motor vehicle collision, resulting in a hyperextension injury. He presents to the ED with 1/5 motor strength in his bilateral upper extremities and 4/5 strength in his lower extremities. Proprioception and perianal sensation are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Conus medullaris syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs after hyperextension injuries in older patients with pre-existing cervical spondylosis. The classic presentation involves disproportionately greater motor weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities.

Question 6979

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

In the treatment of osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures, which of the following is a known absolute contraindication for balloon kyphoplasty?

. Fracture age greater than 4 weeks
. Complete loss of vertebral body height (vertebra plana)
. Presence of a vacuum cleft
. Fracture with posterior vertebral wall involvement and intact neurologic exam
. Active systemic infection or osteomyelitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fracture age greater than 4 weeks


Explanation

Active systemic infection or local osteomyelitis at the fracture site is an absolute contraindication for kyphoplasty or vertebroplasty due to the risk of seeding the infection or exacerbating osteomyelitis.

Question 6980

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 2-year-old boy has been referred for musculoskeletal evaluation. Examination reveals shortened proximal limbs, hip and knee flexion contractures, an abducted thumb, and ear abnormalities. His parents are concerned about his deformed feet. What is the most common foot deformity associated with this patient's diagnosis?

. Pes calcaneovalgus
. Fixed pes planovalgus
. Rigid equinovarus
. Metatarsus adductus
. Skewfoot (forefoot adduction and heel valgus)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pes calcaneovalgus


Explanation

The patient has diastrophic dysplasia. Affected individuals have rhizomelic short stature, cauliflower ears, severe joint contractures (especially knees and hips), hitchhiker's thumb, and a cleft palate. The most common foot abnormality is a rigid equinovarus deformity. Surgical results are poorer than those for idiopathic clubfeet and often require bony procedures or talectomy. Ryoppy S, Poussa M, Merikanto J, Marttinen E, Kaitila I: Foot deformities in diastrophic dysplasia: An analysis of 102 patients. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1992;74:441-444.