This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6901
Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation
A 30-year-old weightlifter feels a tearing sensation in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. Which portion of the pectoralis major is most commonly ruptured in this scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clavicular head at the muscle origin
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures typically occur during eccentric contraction (like bench pressing). The sternal head at its humeral insertion is the most commonly torn portion due to its mechanical disadvantage at maximum extension.
Question 6902
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department following an acute knee dislocation (Schenck KD-III). Vascular exam is normal, but he exhibits a complete foot drop and inability to extend his toes. Which nerve is injured, and at what anatomic site is it most commonly tethered during this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibial nerve; popliteal fossa
Explanation
The common peroneal nerve is uniquely susceptible to traction injury during multi-ligament knee dislocations due to its rigid tethering at the fibular neck as it passes into the anterior compartment.
Question 6903
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 28-year-old weightlifter feels a sharp pop in his anterior chest while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals a loss of the anterior axillary fold and significant weakness with resisted internal rotation. Which anatomical portion of the pectoralis major is most commonly ruptured in this specific scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clavicular head at the muscle belly
Explanation
The sternal head of the pectoralis major is under maximum mechanical tension when the arm is extended and externally rotated, such as at the bottom of a bench press. Consequently, ruptures most frequently occur at the sternal head humeral insertion site.
Question 6904
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 55-year-old female presents with acute medial knee pain after feeling a 'pop' while descending stairs. MRI reveals a radial tear at the posterior horn attachment of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, what is the primary biomechanical consequence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of hoop stresses leading to altered load distribution
Explanation
A posterior medial meniscus root tear functionally unanchors the meniscus, disrupting hoop stresses and causing meniscal extrusion. This results in increased peak contact pressures and accelerated medial compartment osteoarthritis.
Question 6905
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 16-year-old girl presents with hip pain. Radiographs reveal acetabular dysplasia. Which of the following lateral center-edge angles (of Wiberg) is considered diagnostic for frank dysplasia in a skeletally mature patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. < 20 degrees
Explanation
A lateral center-edge angle (LCEA) of Wiberg less than 20 degrees is generally considered diagnostic for acetabular dysplasia. A normal LCEA is typically 25 to 40 degrees.
Question 6906
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 3-year-old child is referred for evaluation of bowed legs. History reveals no dietary deficiencies; however, family history is significant for several members with bowed legs. Examination reveals genu varum, and the child is in the 5th percentile for height and weight. Laboratory studies show normal renal function, a normal calcium level, a decreased phosphate level, and an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. A plain radiograph of the lower extremities is shown in Figure 22. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Blount's disease
Explanation
The differential diagnosis of genu varum includes physiologic genu varum, Blount's disease, skeletal dysplasia, and metabolic bone disease. Children with Blount's disease are generally in the 95th percentile for height and weight, and usually multiple family members are not affected. The radiographs show widening of the physis and metaphyseal flaring. In Blount's disease, the characteristic radiographic changes involve only the tibia, and at this age, most commonly show beaking of the medial metaphysis. Skeletal dysplasias, such as chondrometaphyseal dysplasia, are associated with short stature, and the radiographic changes are similar to those seen here. However, laboratory studies in these children will be within normal limits. Children with chronic renal disease will often be of short stature, and the radiographic findings are again similar to those shown here. However, BUN and creatinine levels are elevated and phosphate levels are elevated rather than decreased in children with renal disease. The absence of dietary deficiencies and positive family history rules out vitamin D-deficient rickets. There are four types of vitamin D-resistant rickets: failure of production of 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D, phosphate diabetes (hypophosphatemic rickets), end organ insensitivity to vitamin D, and renal tubular acidosis. All types of vitamin D-resistant rickets are resistant to treatment with physiologic doses of vitamin D. The patient's clinical picture, family history, laboratory studies, and radiographs are most consistent with hypophosphatemic rickets. This entity is inherited as a sex-linked dominant trait. Evans GA, Arulanantham K, Gage JR: Primary hypophosphatemic rickets: Effect of oral phosphate and vitamin D on growth and surgical treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1980;62:1130-1138. Loeffler RD Jr, Sherman FC: The effect of treatment on growth and deformity in hypophosphatemic vitamin D-resistant rickets. Clin Orthop 1982;162:4-10. Loder RT, Johnston CE II: Infantile tibia vara. J Pediatr Orthop 1987;7:639-646.
Question 6907
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 35-year-old female presents with chronic deep buttock pain. MRI shows narrowing of the space between the ischial tuberosity and the lesser trochanter, with edema in a specific muscle belly. Which muscle is most commonly compressed and pathognomonic for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Piriformis
Explanation
Ischiofemoral impingement occurs due to a narrowed space between the ischial tuberosity and the lesser trochanter. This leads to compression, edema, or atrophy of the quadratus femoris muscle.
Question 6908
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
When measuring the alpha angle to evaluate for Cam morphology on a Dunn lateral radiograph or MRI, an angle greater than what threshold is traditionally considered abnormal?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 35 degrees
Explanation
An alpha angle greater than 55 degrees is widely considered the threshold for identifying a symptomatic Cam deformity. It measures the extent to which the femoral head deviates from perfectly spherical.
Question 6909
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
What is the most common nerve-related complication following hip arthroscopy due to portal placement and limb traction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sciatic nerve palsy
Explanation
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) neurapraxia is the most common neurologic complication of hip arthroscopy. It is directly related to the placement of the anterior portal and limb traction.
Question 6910
Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Which historical sterilization method for ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) is most associated with subsequent severe oxidation, delamination, and rapid wear in THA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gamma irradiation in a vacuum
Explanation
Gamma irradiation in air produces free radicals that react with ambient oxygen over time. This leads to severe oxidation, chain scission, and catastrophic delamination and wear of the polyethylene.
Question 6911
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. During a posterior approach to the hip, protecting this artery is critical. Which of the following anatomic landmarks best identifies the location of the deep branch of the MFCA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Between the superior gemellus and obturator internus
Explanation
The deep branch of the MFCA courses posteriorly between the pectineus and iliopsoas, then runs between the obturator externus and quadratus femoris. Protecting the obturator externus tendon during posterior hip surgery protects this crucial vessel.
Question 6912
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 25-year-old unrestrained driver is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and presents with a posterior hip dislocation. Upon physical examination in the emergency department, what is the classic resting position of the affected lower extremity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Shortened, extended, abducted, and externally rotated
Explanation
Posterior hip dislocations typically present with the affected limb shortened, flexed, adducted, and internally rotated. In contrast, anterior hip dislocations often present with the hip flexed, abducted, and externally rotated.
Question 6913
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an anterior ilioinguinal approach for an acetabular fracture, the surgeon must identify and ligate the corona mortis to prevent life-threatening hemorrhage. The corona mortis represents an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal iliac and superior gluteal vessels
Explanation
The corona mortis is a critical vascular anastomosis connecting the external iliac or inferior epigastric system with the obturator system. It is found on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic rami and must be carefully managed during anterior pelvic approaches.
Question 6914
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The Smith-Petersen approach to the hip utilizes a true internervous plane. Which of the following accurately describes the muscular and neurologic intervals for the superficial dissection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Between the gluteus medius (superior gluteal n.) and minimus (superior gluteal n.)
Explanation
The superficial interval of the Smith-Petersen (anterior) approach is between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).
Question 6915
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient with a posterior hip dislocation subsequently develops a sciatic nerve palsy. Which component of the sciatic nerve is most frequently and severely injured in this scenario, and what is the primary clinical manifestation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibial division; loss of plantar flexion
Explanation
The peroneal (fibular) division of the sciatic nerve is larger, more tethered, and situated laterally, making it highly susceptible to stretch injury during a posterior hip dislocation. This presents clinically as foot drop and weakness in ankle dorsiflexion.
Question 6916
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 55-year-old female presents with chronic lateral hip pain that is refractory to conservative management. Physical examination reveals a positive Trendelenburg sign and weakness with resisted hip abduction. MRI is most likely to show pathology involving which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliopsoas tendon
Explanation
Refractory lateral hip pain accompanied by abductor weakness and a positive Trendelenburg sign is classic for greater trochanteric pain syndrome involving tears or severe tendinopathy of the gluteus medius and/or minimus tendons.
Question 6917
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When utilizing the ilioinguinal approach for an anterior acetabular fracture, three 'windows' are developed. The middle window provides access to the pelvic brim. What structures define the medial and lateral borders of this middle window?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliopectineal fascia laterally and external iliac vessels medially
Explanation
In the ilioinguinal approach, the middle window is formed between the iliopsoas muscle/iliopectineal fascia laterally and the external iliac vessels medially. It allows excellent access to the pelvic brim and quadrilateral plate.
Question 6918
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon is performing a Kocher-Langenbeck approach for a posterior wall acetabular fracture. Which combination of intraoperative limb positioning is most effective for protecting the sciatic nerve from stretch injury during retraction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hip flexion and knee extension
Explanation
The sciatic nerve courses posterior to the hip and crosses the posterior knee. Extending the hip and flexing the knee puts the nerve on maximum slack, thereby minimizing the risk of iatrogenic traction injury during the posterior approach.
Question 6919
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A patient is scheduled for surgical excision of heterotopic ossification (HO) following previous acetabular trauma. To prevent recurrence, postoperative prophylaxis is planned. Which of the following is the most standard prophylactic regimen?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Oral bisphosphonates for 6 weeks
Explanation
Prophylaxis against heterotopic ossification typically consists of either a single fraction of external beam radiation (700-800 cGy) given postoperatively or oral indomethacin for 2 to 6 weeks. Bisphosphonates delay mineralization but do not prevent the osteoid formation.
Question 6920
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 25-year-old unrestrained driver sustains a dashboard injury during a collision. He presents with his right hip flexed, adducted, and internally rotated. Neurological examination reveals weak ankle dorsiflexion and decreased sensation over the dorsal foot. Which nerve division is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral nerve
Explanation
The presentation describes a posterior hip dislocation, which most commonly injures the sciatic nerve. The peroneal division is more susceptible to stretch injury than the tibial division because it is tethered at the fibular head and sits more laterally.
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