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Question 6901

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 30-year-old weightlifter feels a tearing sensation in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation. Which portion of the pectoralis major is most commonly ruptured in this scenario?

. Clavicular head at the muscle origin
. Sternal head at the muscle origin
. Clavicular head at the tendinous insertion
. Sternal head at the tendinous insertion
. Musculotendinous junction of the clavicular head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clavicular head at the muscle origin


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures typically occur during eccentric contraction (like bench pressing). The sternal head at its humeral insertion is the most commonly torn portion due to its mechanical disadvantage at maximum extension.

Question 6902

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department following an acute knee dislocation (Schenck KD-III). Vascular exam is normal, but he exhibits a complete foot drop and inability to extend his toes. Which nerve is injured, and at what anatomic site is it most commonly tethered during this injury?

. Tibial nerve; popliteal fossa
. Saphenous nerve; adductor canal
. Common peroneal nerve; fibular neck
. Deep peroneal nerve; anterior compartment of the leg
. Sciatic nerve; greater sciatic foramen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial nerve; popliteal fossa


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve is uniquely susceptible to traction injury during multi-ligament knee dislocations due to its rigid tethering at the fibular neck as it passes into the anterior compartment.

Question 6903

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 28-year-old weightlifter feels a sharp pop in his anterior chest while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals a loss of the anterior axillary fold and significant weakness with resisted internal rotation. Which anatomical portion of the pectoralis major is most commonly ruptured in this specific scenario?

. Clavicular head at the muscle belly
. Sternal head at its humeral insertion
. Clavicular head at its humeral insertion
. Sternal head at the musculotendinous junction
. Costal attachment of the sternal head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clavicular head at the muscle belly


Explanation

The sternal head of the pectoralis major is under maximum mechanical tension when the arm is extended and externally rotated, such as at the bottom of a bench press. Consequently, ruptures most frequently occur at the sternal head humeral insertion site.

Question 6904

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 55-year-old female presents with acute medial knee pain after feeling a 'pop' while descending stairs. MRI reveals a radial tear at the posterior horn attachment of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, what is the primary biomechanical consequence?

. Loss of hoop stresses leading to altered load distribution
. Decreased peak contact pressures
. Increased anterior tibial translation
. Decreased varus alignment
. Increased lateral compartment cartilage wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of hoop stresses leading to altered load distribution


Explanation

A posterior medial meniscus root tear functionally unanchors the meniscus, disrupting hoop stresses and causing meniscal extrusion. This results in increased peak contact pressures and accelerated medial compartment osteoarthritis.

Question 6905

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 16-year-old girl presents with hip pain. Radiographs reveal acetabular dysplasia. Which of the following lateral center-edge angles (of Wiberg) is considered diagnostic for frank dysplasia in a skeletally mature patient?

. < 20 degrees
. 25-30 degrees
. 35-40 degrees
. > 40 degrees
. < 45 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. < 20 degrees


Explanation

A lateral center-edge angle (LCEA) of Wiberg less than 20 degrees is generally considered diagnostic for acetabular dysplasia. A normal LCEA is typically 25 to 40 degrees.

Question 6906

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 3-year-old child is referred for evaluation of bowed legs. History reveals no dietary deficiencies; however, family history is significant for several members with bowed legs. Examination reveals genu varum, and the child is in the 5th percentile for height and weight. Laboratory studies show normal renal function, a normal calcium level, a decreased phosphate level, and an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. A plain radiograph of the lower extremities is shown in Figure 22. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Blount's disease
. Chondrometaphyseal dysplasia
. Renal osteodystrophy
. Vitamin D-deficient rickets
. Vitamin D-resistant rickets

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Blount's disease


Explanation

The differential diagnosis of genu varum includes physiologic genu varum, Blount's disease, skeletal dysplasia, and metabolic bone disease. Children with Blount's disease are generally in the 95th percentile for height and weight, and usually multiple family members are not affected. The radiographs show widening of the physis and metaphyseal flaring. In Blount's disease, the characteristic radiographic changes involve only the tibia, and at this age, most commonly show beaking of the medial metaphysis. Skeletal dysplasias, such as chondrometaphyseal dysplasia, are associated with short stature, and the radiographic changes are similar to those seen here. However, laboratory studies in these children will be within normal limits. Children with chronic renal disease will often be of short stature, and the radiographic findings are again similar to those shown here. However, BUN and creatinine levels are elevated and phosphate levels are elevated rather than decreased in children with renal disease. The absence of dietary deficiencies and positive family history rules out vitamin D-deficient rickets. There are four types of vitamin D-resistant rickets: failure of production of 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D, phosphate diabetes (hypophosphatemic rickets), end organ insensitivity to vitamin D, and renal tubular acidosis. All types of vitamin D-resistant rickets are resistant to treatment with physiologic doses of vitamin D. The patient's clinical picture, family history, laboratory studies, and radiographs are most consistent with hypophosphatemic rickets. This entity is inherited as a sex-linked dominant trait. Evans GA, Arulanantham K, Gage JR: Primary hypophosphatemic rickets: Effect of oral phosphate and vitamin D on growth and surgical treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1980;62:1130-1138. Loeffler RD Jr, Sherman FC: The effect of treatment on growth and deformity in hypophosphatemic vitamin D-resistant rickets. Clin Orthop 1982;162:4-10. Loder RT, Johnston CE II: Infantile tibia vara. J Pediatr Orthop 1987;7:639-646.

Question 6907

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 35-year-old female presents with chronic deep buttock pain. MRI shows narrowing of the space between the ischial tuberosity and the lesser trochanter, with edema in a specific muscle belly. Which muscle is most commonly compressed and pathognomonic for this condition?

. Piriformis
. Quadratus femoris
. Obturator internus
. Gluteus minimus
. Gemellus superior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis


Explanation

Ischiofemoral impingement occurs due to a narrowed space between the ischial tuberosity and the lesser trochanter. This leads to compression, edema, or atrophy of the quadratus femoris muscle.

Question 6908

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

When measuring the alpha angle to evaluate for Cam morphology on a Dunn lateral radiograph or MRI, an angle greater than what threshold is traditionally considered abnormal?

. 35 degrees
. 45 degrees
. 55 degrees
. 65 degrees
. 75 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 35 degrees


Explanation

An alpha angle greater than 55 degrees is widely considered the threshold for identifying a symptomatic Cam deformity. It measures the extent to which the femoral head deviates from perfectly spherical.

Question 6909

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

What is the most common nerve-related complication following hip arthroscopy due to portal placement and limb traction?

. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Femoral nerve palsy
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve neurapraxia
. Pudendal nerve entrapment
. Obturator nerve palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve palsy


Explanation

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) neurapraxia is the most common neurologic complication of hip arthroscopy. It is directly related to the placement of the anterior portal and limb traction.

Question 6910

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials

Which historical sterilization method for ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) is most associated with subsequent severe oxidation, delamination, and rapid wear in THA?

. Gamma irradiation in a vacuum
. Gamma irradiation in air
. Ethylene oxide gas
. Gas plasma sterilization
. Electron beam irradiation in an inert gas

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gamma irradiation in a vacuum


Explanation

Gamma irradiation in air produces free radicals that react with ambient oxygen over time. This leads to severe oxidation, chain scission, and catastrophic delamination and wear of the polyethylene.

Question 6911

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head. During a posterior approach to the hip, protecting this artery is critical. Which of the following anatomic landmarks best identifies the location of the deep branch of the MFCA?

. Between the superior gemellus and obturator internus
. Anterior to the piriformis tendon
. Between the quadratus femoris and obturator externus
. Inferior to the inferior gemellus
. Medial to the sciatic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the superior gemellus and obturator internus


Explanation

The deep branch of the MFCA courses posteriorly between the pectineus and iliopsoas, then runs between the obturator externus and quadratus femoris. Protecting the obturator externus tendon during posterior hip surgery protects this crucial vessel.

Question 6912

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 25-year-old unrestrained driver is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and presents with a posterior hip dislocation. Upon physical examination in the emergency department, what is the classic resting position of the affected lower extremity?

. Shortened, extended, abducted, and externally rotated
. Shortened, flexed, adducted, and internally rotated
. Lengthened, flexed, adducted, and internally rotated
. Shortened, flexed, abducted, and externally rotated
. Lengthened, extended, abducted, and externally rotated

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shortened, extended, abducted, and externally rotated


Explanation

Posterior hip dislocations typically present with the affected limb shortened, flexed, adducted, and internally rotated. In contrast, anterior hip dislocations often present with the hip flexed, abducted, and externally rotated.

Question 6913

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an anterior ilioinguinal approach for an acetabular fracture, the surgeon must identify and ligate the corona mortis to prevent life-threatening hemorrhage. The corona mortis represents an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?

. Internal iliac and superior gluteal vessels
. Superior epigastric and internal pudendal vessels
. External iliac (or inferior epigastric) and obturator vessels
. Medial femoral circumflex and lateral femoral circumflex vessels
. Femoral and superficial epigastric vessels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal iliac and superior gluteal vessels


Explanation

The corona mortis is a critical vascular anastomosis connecting the external iliac or inferior epigastric system with the obturator system. It is found on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic rami and must be carefully managed during anterior pelvic approaches.

Question 6914

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The Smith-Petersen approach to the hip utilizes a true internervous plane. Which of the following accurately describes the muscular and neurologic intervals for the superficial dissection?

. Between the gluteus medius (superior gluteal n.) and minimus (superior gluteal n.)
. Between the adductor longus (obturator n.) and gracilis (obturator n.)
. Between the gluteus maximus (inferior gluteal n.) and tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal n.)
. Between the sartorius (femoral n.) and tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal n.)
. Between the rectus femoris (femoral n.) and vastus lateralis (femoral n.)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the gluteus medius (superior gluteal n.) and minimus (superior gluteal n.)


Explanation

The superficial interval of the Smith-Petersen (anterior) approach is between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).

Question 6915

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient with a posterior hip dislocation subsequently develops a sciatic nerve palsy. Which component of the sciatic nerve is most frequently and severely injured in this scenario, and what is the primary clinical manifestation?

. Tibial division; loss of plantar flexion
. Tibial division; loss of toe flexion
. Peroneal division; loss of ankle dorsiflexion (foot drop)
. Peroneal division; loss of hip extension
. Femoral nerve; loss of knee extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial division; loss of plantar flexion


Explanation

The peroneal (fibular) division of the sciatic nerve is larger, more tethered, and situated laterally, making it highly susceptible to stretch injury during a posterior hip dislocation. This presents clinically as foot drop and weakness in ankle dorsiflexion.

Question 6916

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 55-year-old female presents with chronic lateral hip pain that is refractory to conservative management. Physical examination reveals a positive Trendelenburg sign and weakness with resisted hip abduction. MRI is most likely to show pathology involving which structure?

. Iliopsoas tendon
. Piriformis muscle
. Gluteus medius and minimus tendons
. Hamstring origin
. Tensor fasciae latae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

Refractory lateral hip pain accompanied by abductor weakness and a positive Trendelenburg sign is classic for greater trochanteric pain syndrome involving tears or severe tendinopathy of the gluteus medius and/or minimus tendons.

Question 6917

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When utilizing the ilioinguinal approach for an anterior acetabular fracture, three 'windows' are developed. The middle window provides access to the pelvic brim. What structures define the medial and lateral borders of this middle window?

. Iliopectineal fascia laterally and external iliac vessels medially
. External iliac vessels laterally and spermatic cord medially
. Iliopsoas muscle laterally and iliopectineal fascia medially
. Spermatic cord laterally and rectus abdominis medially
. Femoral nerve laterally and external iliac vessels medially

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopectineal fascia laterally and external iliac vessels medially


Explanation

In the ilioinguinal approach, the middle window is formed between the iliopsoas muscle/iliopectineal fascia laterally and the external iliac vessels medially. It allows excellent access to the pelvic brim and quadrilateral plate.

Question 6918

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A surgeon is performing a Kocher-Langenbeck approach for a posterior wall acetabular fracture. Which combination of intraoperative limb positioning is most effective for protecting the sciatic nerve from stretch injury during retraction?

. Hip flexion and knee extension
. Hip extension and knee flexion
. Hip extension and knee extension
. Hip flexion and knee flexion
. Hip abduction and knee extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hip flexion and knee extension


Explanation

The sciatic nerve courses posterior to the hip and crosses the posterior knee. Extending the hip and flexing the knee puts the nerve on maximum slack, thereby minimizing the risk of iatrogenic traction injury during the posterior approach.

Question 6919

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A patient is scheduled for surgical excision of heterotopic ossification (HO) following previous acetabular trauma. To prevent recurrence, postoperative prophylaxis is planned. Which of the following is the most standard prophylactic regimen?

. Oral bisphosphonates for 6 weeks
. Single-dose external beam radiation (700-800 cGy)
. Intravenous antibiotics for 24 hours
. Oral corticosteroids for 2 weeks
. High-dose calcium supplementation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oral bisphosphonates for 6 weeks


Explanation

Prophylaxis against heterotopic ossification typically consists of either a single fraction of external beam radiation (700-800 cGy) given postoperatively or oral indomethacin for 2 to 6 weeks. Bisphosphonates delay mineralization but do not prevent the osteoid formation.

Question 6920

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 25-year-old unrestrained driver sustains a dashboard injury during a collision. He presents with his right hip flexed, adducted, and internally rotated. Neurological examination reveals weak ankle dorsiflexion and decreased sensation over the dorsal foot. Which nerve division is most likely injured?

. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve


Explanation

The presentation describes a posterior hip dislocation, which most commonly injures the sciatic nerve. The peroneal division is more susceptible to stretch injury than the tibial division because it is tethered at the fibular head and sits more laterally.