Menu

Question 6501

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 70-year-old woman on long-term alendronate therapy reports a 3-month history of vague thigh pain. Radiographs reveal lateral cortical thickening and a transverse radiolucent line in the subtrochanteric region. What is the most appropriate prophylactic surgical management for this impending fracture?

. Lateral closing wedge osteotomy
. Cephalomedullary nail fixation
. Plating with a broad dynamic compression plate
. Discontinuation of bisphosphonates without surgical intervention
. Teriparatide therapy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral closing wedge osteotomy


Explanation

For impending atypical femoral fractures associated with prolonged bisphosphonate use (manifesting as lateral thigh pain and cortical beaking/radiolucency), prophylactic fixation with a cephalomedullary nail is recommended. The bisphosphonate should also be immediately discontinued.

Question 6502

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertrophic osteoarthritis and prior contralateral heterotopic ossification (HO) undergoes a THA. What is the most appropriate prophylactic regimen to prevent recurrence of HO in this high-risk patient?

. 700 cGy single-dose radiation therapy within 48 hours postoperatively
. Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin for 4 weeks
. Oral bisphosphonates for 6 months
. Oral corticosteroids for 2 weeks
. Intravenous tranexamic acid during surgery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 700 cGy single-dose radiation therapy within 48 hours postoperatively


Explanation

Patients at high risk for heterotopic ossification (e.g., prior HO, ankylosing spondylitis, hypertrophic OA) should receive prophylaxis. Effective options include a single dose of localized radiation therapy (700-800 cGy) within 48 hours postoperatively or oral indomethacin.

Question 6503

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a direct anterior approach for a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon utilizes the internervous plane between which of the following muscles?

. Gluteus medius and tensor fascia lata
. Sartorius and rectus femoris
. Tensor fascia lata and sartorius
. Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
. Rectus femoris and vastus lateralis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gluteus medius and tensor fascia lata


Explanation

The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) utilizes the true internervous plane between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fascia lata (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 6504

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials

Current evidence suggests that in elderly patients undergoing hemiarthroplasty for a displaced femoral neck fracture, the use of a cemented femoral stem compared to an uncemented stem is associated with which of the following?

. Higher rate of intraoperative mortality
. Higher rate of long-term implant loosening
. Lower incidence of postoperative periprosthetic fractures
. Increased incidence of deep vein thrombosis
. Shorter operative time and less blood loss

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Higher rate of intraoperative mortality


Explanation

Cemented stems in elderly hemiarthroplasty patients have a significantly lower risk of postoperative periprosthetic fractures compared to uncemented stems. While there is a risk of bone cement implantation syndrome, overall survival rates remain comparable.

Question 6505

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

The main blood supply to the adult femoral head is the lateral epiphyseal artery. This artery is a terminal branch of which of the following vessels?

. Obturator artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Profunda femoris artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator artery


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head via its terminal branches, the lateral epiphyseal arteries.

Question 6506

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a direct anterior approach for total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon dissects between the sartorius and the tensor fasciae latae. Which of the following neurologic structures is at highest risk of iatrogenic injury during the exposure of this specific internervous interval?

. Femoral nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve


Explanation

The direct anterior approach utilizes the internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve courses superficially across this operative field and is highly vulnerable to traction or direct transection injury.

Question 6507

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 68-year-old woman on long-term alendronate for osteoporosis presents with a 3-month history of prodromal anterior thigh pain.

Radiographs demonstrate a transverse, nondisplaced radiolucency in the lateral cortex of the subtrochanteric region with localized periosteal "beaking." What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discontinue alendronate and prescribe protected weight-bearing with crutches
. Immediate prophylactic cephalomedullary nailing
. Corticosteroid injection into the trochanteric bursa
. Core decompression of the proximal femur
. Convert to teriparatide therapy and monitor with serial radiographs every 6 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discontinue alendronate and prescribe protected weight-bearing with crutches


Explanation

The patient exhibits classic clinical and radiographic signs of an impending atypical femoral fracture secondary to prolonged bisphosphonate therapy. Given the presence of prodromal thigh pain and cortical beaking, prophylactic cephalomedullary nailing is indicated to prevent catastrophic completion of the fracture.

Question 6508

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

Following a primary THA using a posterior approach, the patient demonstrates a foot drop and inability to extend the great toe. Sensation is decreased over the dorsum of the foot. Which specific neural structure was most likely injured?

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve


Explanation

The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is the most commonly injured nerve during THA, often due to retractor placement or limb lengthening. Injury presents with foot drop and sensory loss over the anterolateral leg and dorsum of the foot.

Question 6509

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When performing an anterior approach to the hip (Smith-Petersen), the internervous plane utilized is between muscles innervated by which two nerves?

. Superior gluteal and femoral nerves
. Femoral and obturator nerves
. Inferior gluteal and superior gluteal nerves
. Sciatic and superior gluteal nerves
. Sciatic and femoral nerves

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior gluteal and femoral nerves


Explanation

The Smith-Petersen approach uses the superficial internervous plane between the tensor fasciae latae (supplied by the superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius (supplied by the femoral nerve).

Question 6510

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials

Highly cross-linked polyethylene is now commonly used in THA. The primary negative biomechanical effect of increasing the cross-linking radiation dose in polyethylene is:

. Increased volumetric wear
. Decreased oxidation resistance
. Decreased fatigue and fracture resistance
. Increased coefficient of friction
. Increased risk of squeaking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased volumetric wear


Explanation

While high levels of cross-linking significantly decrease the volumetric wear rate of polyethylene, they also diminish its ultimate tensile strength, fatigue strength, and fracture toughness.

Question 6511

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Following surgical fixation of an osteoporotic intertrochanteric hip fracture, when is the optimal time to initiate intravenous zoledronic acid to reduce the risk of subsequent fractures without delaying fracture union?

. Within 24 hours of surgery
. 1 week postoperatively
. 2 to 6 weeks postoperatively
. 3 months postoperatively
. 6 months postoperatively

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 24 hours of surgery


Explanation

Initiation of bisphosphonate therapy is typically recommended within 2 to 6 weeks postoperatively. This slight delay allows the initial fracture callus to form without disruption, while still significantly reducing future fracture risk.

Question 6512

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a total hip arthroplasty utilizing the direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach, which of the following internervous planes is utilized superficially?

. Between the sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
. Between the gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae
. Between the rectus femoris and vastus lateralis
. Between the adductor longus and gracilis
. Between the gluteus maximus and medius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the sartorius and tensor fasciae latae


Explanation

The direct anterior approach exploits the internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).

Question 6513

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A surgeon utilizes the direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) for a primary total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following is an expected potential neurologic complication specific to this surgical approach?

. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Superior gluteal nerve palsy
. Dysesthesia over the anterolateral thigh
. Weakness in hip adduction
. Foot drop

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve palsy


Explanation

The direct anterior approach uses the internervous plane between the sartorius and tensor fasciae latae. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is uniquely at risk, which can lead to dysesthesia over the anterolateral thigh.

Question 6514

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

According to recent anatomic studies, which of the following arteries provides the dominant blood supply to the humeral head?

. Ascending branch of the anterior circumflex humeral artery
. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
. Thoracoacromial artery
. Circumflex scapular artery
. Suprascapular artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ascending branch of the anterior circumflex humeral artery


Explanation

Historically, the anterior circumflex humeral artery (arcuate branch) was thought to be dominant. However, recent quantitative perfusion studies have proven that the posterior circumflex humeral artery provides the majority of the blood supply to the humeral head.

Question 6515

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture via an extended deltopectoral approach, which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury when placing retractors beneath the deltoid or splitting its distal fibers?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve courses anterior to posterior on the deep surface of the deltoid, approximately 5 to 7 cm distal to the lateral edge of the acromion. It is highly susceptible to traction or transection during distal deltoid mobilization.

Question 6516

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 42-year-old man undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair. During the procedure, the surgeon decides to place an anchor in the posterosuperior aspect of the greater tuberosity. What structure is most at risk if the anchor is misplaced too medially near the glenoid articular margin?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve courses through the spinoglenoid notch and supplies the infraspinatus. It is at risk during aggressive medial dissection or medial anchor placement near the posterior glenoid neck.

Question 6517

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 65-year-old man falls on his outstretched dominant arm. He has a 3-part proximal humerus fracture with varus alignment. He undergoes ORIF with a locking plate. Postoperatively, he is noted to have inability to actively extend his wrist and fingers. What is the most likely cause?

. Axillary nerve injury from the surgical approach
. Musculocutaneous nerve injury from retractor placement
. Radial nerve injury from an excessively long drill or screw in the distal fragment
. Suprascapular nerve injury from superior plate placement
. Ulnar nerve traction injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve injury from the surgical approach


Explanation

The radial nerve courses along the posterior humerus and is at risk if a drill or screw penetrates the posterior cortex too far distally during proximal humerus plating. Wrist and finger extension weakness clearly indicates a radial nerve palsy.

Question 6518

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 32-year-old male bodybuilder feels a sudden "pop" and tearing sensation in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold. During the bench press motion, which portion of the injured muscle typically ruptures first?

. Clavicular head
. Sternal head
. Both heads rupture simultaneously
. Musculotendinous junction
. Coracoid insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clavicular head


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures typically occur at the humeral insertion during eccentric loading (e.g., bench press). The sternal head is under maximum tension when the arm is extended and externally rotated at the bottom of the lift, making it the first to fail.

Question 6519

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 33-year-old man presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid after a blunt trauma to the posterior shoulder. An MRI reveals an isolated fluid collection in the quadrilateral space. Which nerve is most likely compressed in this space?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve


Explanation

The quadrilateral space contains the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery. Compression here (Quadrilateral Space Syndrome) leads to deltoid weakness and paresthesias over the lateral shoulder.

Question 6520

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches



A 40-year-old man presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated atrophy of the teres minor on physical examination. MRI confirms fatty infiltration isolated to the teres minor. Compression of which nerve in the quadrilateral space is the most likely cause?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve


Explanation

Quadrilateral space syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. It classically presents with isolated teres minor atrophy, although the deltoid can also be affected depending on the exact site of compression.