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Question 6461

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a massive rotator cuff repair, the surgeon opts to perform an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis. If retractor placement and dissection drift too far medial to the short head of the biceps/coracobrachialis, which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Median nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis approximately 5-8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Retractors placed too aggressively medial to the conjoint tendon during a subpectoral biceps tenodesis can easily injure this nerve.

Question 6462

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 21-year-old football player sustains a valgus blow to the knee. MRI confirms an isolated, acute grade III injury to the medial collateral ligament (MCL) at the femoral attachment. What is the recommended treatment?

. Immediate primary surgical repair of the MCL
. Surgical reconstruction using hamstring autograft
. Hinged knee bracing and early functional rehabilitation
. Cylinder cast immobilization in 30 degrees of flexion for 6 weeks
. Isolated pes anserinus transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate primary surgical repair of the MCL


Explanation

Isolated grade III MCL injuries, particularly those at the femoral insertion, have excellent healing potential. They are typically treated successfully nonoperatively with a hinged knee brace to protect against valgus stress and early functional rehabilitation.

Question 6463

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 32-year-old male weightlifter feels a sharp pop in his anterior chest/axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals a cosmetic defect, loss of the anterior axillary fold, and weakness with adduction and internal rotation. The rupture most likely involves which anatomical location?

. Sternal head at the humeral insertion
. Clavicular head at the muscle belly
. Sternal head at the sternal origin
. Clavicular head at the humeral insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sternal head at the humeral insertion


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures classicially occur in weightlifters doing the bench press during the eccentric phase. The sternal head at or near its insertion on the humerus is the most frequently injured portion due to the maximal tension it experiences at the bottom of the lift.

Question 6464

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and internal rotation weakness following a fall onto an outstretched hand. The examiner notes a positive belly-press test. Which of the following nerves innervates the primary muscle evaluated by this specific test?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Upper and lower subscapular nerves
. Thoracodorsal nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve


Explanation

The belly-press test evaluates the subscapularis muscle. The subscapularis is innervated by both the upper and lower subscapular nerves, which originate from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

Question 6465

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 28-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals an asymmetric axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation and adduction. Which aspect of the pectoralis major is most commonly ruptured in this specific scenario?

. Clavicular head at the muscle belly
. Sternal head at the muscle belly
. Clavicular head at the humeral insertion
. Sternal head at the humeral insertion
. Costal attachments at the ribs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clavicular head at the muscle belly


Explanation

Pectoralis major ruptures most commonly occur at the humeral insertion in weightlifters performing the bench press. The sternal head is preferentially loaded and ruptures first because it is placed under maximal stretch when the arm is extended, abducted, and externally rotated.

Question 6466

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 4-year-old boy presents with a 2-day history of right hip pain and refusing to bear weight. His temperature is 38.8 Celsius (101.8 F). Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 13,000/mm3, ESR of 45 mm/hr, and CRP of 3.0 mg/dL. Radiographs of the hip are normal. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate next step?

. Discharge home with oral NSAIDs and follow-up in 48 hours
. Order an MRI of the pelvis with IV contrast
. Perform an ultrasound-guided hip aspiration
. Initiate empiric IV antibiotics and observe
. Schedule an urgent bone scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discharge home with oral NSAIDs and follow-up in 48 hours


Explanation

This patient meets all four Kocher criteria for septic arthritis (non-weight-bearing, temp >38.5 C, ESR >40, WBC >12,000), giving a 99% probability of the diagnosis. Urgent hip aspiration is required for definitive diagnosis and to guide treatment before considering surgical irrigation.

Question 6467

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 3-year-old boy presents with a temperature of 38.8°C, an ESR of 45 mm/hr, a WBC count of 14,000/mm³, and refusal to bear weight on his left leg. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the approximate probability that this child has septic arthritis of the hip?
. 40%
. 71%
. 83%
. 93%
. 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 99%


Explanation

The patient meets all 4 of the classic Kocher criteria (fever >38.5°C, ESR >40, WBC >12,000, and non-weight-bearing). The presence of all 4 criteria correlates with a 99% predictive probability for septic arthritis of the hip.

Question 6468

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE

A 5-year-old boy presents with a limp, a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F), and an inability to bear weight on his right leg. Laboratory tests show an ESR of 55 mm/hr and a WBC count of 14,000/mm3. According to the modified Kocher criteria, what is the predictive probability that this child has septic arthritis of the hip?

. 10%
. 40%
. 71%
. 93%
. 99%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10%


Explanation

The modified Kocher criteria include fever >38.5°C, inability to bear weight, ESR >40 mm/hr, and WBC >12,000/mm3. The presence of all four criteria yields a 99% probability of septic arthritis.

Question 6469

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 4-year-old boy presents with a 2-day history of right hip pain, a temperature of 38.8°C, and refusal to bear weight. Laboratory tests show an ESR of 50 mm/hr and a WBC of 14,000/mm³. Radiographs are unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step?
. Observation and NSAIDs
. Outpatient oral antibiotics
. MRI of the right hip
. Ultrasound-guided aspiration of the hip
. Intravenous antibiotics without aspiration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ultrasound-guided aspiration of the hip


Explanation

The patient meets 4 of 4 Kocher criteria for septic arthritis (fever, non-weight bearing, ESR >40, WBC >12,000). Ultrasound-guided aspiration is required to confirm the diagnosis and decompress the joint.

Question 6470

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 6-year-old boy falls on an outstretched hand and sustains an extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture, which is displaced posteromedially. Which nerve is most commonly at risk with this specific displacement pattern?

. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Axillary nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior interosseous nerve


Explanation

Posteromedial displacement of an extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture causes the proximal fragment to translate anterolaterally, putting the radial nerve at greatest risk. Posterolateral displacement endangers the anterior interosseous nerve.

Question 6471

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 4-year-old boy with blue sclerae and a history of four extremity fractures after minimal trauma is diagnosed with severe Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI). Which of the following pharmacological therapies is currently the standard of care to decrease fracture incidence and increase bone mineral density in this patient?

. Intravenous pamidronate
. Oral calcium and cholecalciferol supplementation
. Recombinant human growth hormone
. Teriparatide
. Intranasal calcitonin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravenous pamidronate


Explanation

Intravenous bisphosphonates (such as pamidronate or zoledronic acid) are the standard of care for children with moderate to severe Osteogenesis Imperfecta. They inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, which leads to increased bone mineral density, decreased bone pain, and a significant reduction in the incidence of fractures.

Question 6472

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 4-year-old child with a history of recurrent fractures, blue sclerae, and dentinogenesis imperfecta is diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) type III. In order to decrease the fracture burden and correct progressive long-bone deformities, what is the current gold standard combined medical and surgical management strategy?
. Calcium channel blockers and rigid solid intramedullary nailing
. Intravenous bisphosphonates and telescopic intramedullary rodding
. Oral corticosteroids and plate fixation
. Vitamin D supplementation and external fixation
. Growth hormone therapy and soft-tissue release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravenous bisphosphonates and telescopic intramedullary rodding


Explanation

The medical management of severe osteogenesis imperfecta heavily relies on bisphosphonates (often administered intravenously, like pamidronate), which inhibit osteoclast resorption and increase bone density, significantly reducing fracture rates. Surgically, the use of telescopic (growing) intramedullary rods, such as the Fassier-Duval rod, is the gold standard for long-bone deformities in growing children with OI. Telescopic rods accommodate growth, providing internal splinting that decreases the likelihood of recurrent fractures and rod migration compared to static solid nails or plates.

Question 6473

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 3-year-old girl with blue sclerae and dentinogenesis imperfecta presents with her third low-energy long bone fracture. Genetic testing confirms a mutation affecting type I collagen. Which of the following systemic pharmacological treatments is most commonly indicated to decrease fracture incidence and improve bone mass in this condition?

. Recombinant human growth hormone
. Intravenous pamidronate
. Oral calcium and vitamin D supplementation only
. Teriparatide
. Denosumab

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recombinant human growth hormone


Explanation

The patient's clinical presentation and genetic defect are consistent with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI). Intravenous bisphosphonates, such as pamidronate or zoledronic acid, are the current gold standard medical therapy for moderate to severe pediatric OI. By inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, bisphosphonates increase bone mineral density, decrease the frequency of fractures, and often alleviate chronic bone pain. Teriparatide is generally contraindicated in children with open physes.

Question 6474

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old woman sustains a posterior hip dislocation during a high-speed collision. After closed reduction, she exhibits a foot drop and decreased sensation over the dorsum of her foot. Which portion of the sciatic nerve is most vulnerable in this injury, and what specific area of sensory loss is most diagnostic for its isolated injury?

. Tibial division; sole of the foot
. Peroneal division; first dorsal web space
. Tibial division; lateral border of the foot
. Peroneal division; medial malleolus
. Femoral nerve; anterior thigh

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial division; sole of the foot


Explanation

The peroneal (fibular) division of the sciatic nerve is uniquely tethered at the sciatic notch and is anatomically positioned lateral and posterior, making it most susceptible to stretching during a posterior hip dislocation. Sensory loss in the first dorsal web space (deep peroneal nerve territory) is characteristic.

Question 6475

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 68-year-old woman with a 9-year history of alendronate therapy reports an insidious onset of right thigh pain. Radiographs reveal focal lateral cortical thickening of the proximal femoral diaphysis with a subtle, transverse radiolucent line extending through the lateral cortex. What is the most appropriate management?

. Discontinue alendronate and prescribe strict bed rest for 6 weeks
. Switch to denosumab and allow weight-bearing as tolerated
. Prophylactic open reduction and internal fixation with a dynamic hip screw
. Prophylactic stabilization with a cephalomedullary nail
. Core decompression of the proximal femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discontinue alendronate and prescribe strict bed rest for 6 weeks


Explanation

This patient has an impending atypical femur fracture (AFF) associated with long-term bisphosphonate use. Because she has prodromal thigh pain and a visible transverse radiolucent line, prophylactic fixation with a cephalomedullary nail is indicated to prevent completion of the fracture.

Question 6476

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Which of the following clinical postures is most characteristic of a patient presenting with an obturator-type anterior hip dislocation?

. Hip flexed, adducted, and internally rotated
. Hip extended, adducted, and internally rotated
. Hip flexed, abducted, and externally rotated
. Hip extended, abducted, and externally rotated
. Hip flexed, adducted, and externally rotated

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hip flexed, adducted, and internally rotated


Explanation

Anterior hip dislocations present with the hip externally rotated and abducted. If it is an inferior (obturator) type, the hip is concurrently flexed; if it is a superior (pubic) type, the hip is extended.

Question 6477

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old unrestrained driver is involved in a motor vehicle collision. In the emergency department, his right lower extremity is shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. He is unable to dorsiflex his right foot or extend his toes. What is the most likely direction of his hip dislocation and the specific injured nerve branch?

. Anterior; tibial division of sciatic nerve
. Posterior; tibial division of sciatic nerve
. Posterior; peroneal division of sciatic nerve
. Anterior; femoral nerve
. Posterior; femoral nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior; tibial division of sciatic nerve


Explanation

Posterior hip dislocations classically present with a shortened, adducted, and internally rotated limb. The common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is the most commonly injured nerve branch due to its lateral position and tethering at the sciatic notch.

Question 6478

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 25-year-old skier crashes and presents to the emergency department with severe groin pain. On examination, his right hip is held in a position of marked flexion, abduction, and external rotation. Radiographs confirm an anterior hip dislocation. Which anatomical structure is most at risk of injury in this specific dislocation pattern?

. Sciatic nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Femoral artery
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

Anterior hip dislocations of the inferior (obturator) type present with the hip in marked flexion, abduction, and external rotation. The displaced femoral head poses a direct risk to the neurovascular structures in the femoral triangle, particularly the femoral artery and vein.

Question 6479

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

The primary blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the adult femoral head is derived from which of the following vessels?

. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Lateral epiphyseal artery
. Medial epiphyseal artery
. Pudendal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Artery of the ligamentum teres


Explanation

The main blood supply to the adult femoral head is the lateral epiphyseal artery. This vessel is the terminal branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) and provides critical perfusion to the superolateral weight-bearing portion of the femoral head.

Question 6480

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 30-year-old man suffers a posterior hip dislocation. Two attempts at closed reduction under conscious sedation are unsuccessful. During the subsequent open reduction via a posterior Kocher-Langenbeck approach, which of the following structures is most likely found to be obstructing the reduction?

. Rectus femoris
. Iliopsoas tendon
. Piriformis muscle
. Ligamentum teres
. Anterior hip capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rectus femoris


Explanation

In irreducible posterior hip dislocations, the femoral head often "buttonholes" through the posterior capsule or the short external rotators. The piriformis muscle and the obturator internus are the most common anatomical structures that block successful closed reduction.