This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 6461
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a massive rotator cuff repair, the surgeon opts to perform an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis. If retractor placement and dissection drift too far medial to the short head of the biceps/coracobrachialis, which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis approximately 5-8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Retractors placed too aggressively medial to the conjoint tendon during a subpectoral biceps tenodesis can easily injure this nerve.
Question 6462
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 21-year-old football player sustains a valgus blow to the knee. MRI confirms an isolated, acute grade III injury to the medial collateral ligament (MCL) at the femoral attachment. What is the recommended treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate primary surgical repair of the MCL
Explanation
Isolated grade III MCL injuries, particularly those at the femoral insertion, have excellent healing potential. They are typically treated successfully nonoperatively with a hinged knee brace to protect against valgus stress and early functional rehabilitation.
Question 6463
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 32-year-old male weightlifter feels a sharp pop in his anterior chest/axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals a cosmetic defect, loss of the anterior axillary fold, and weakness with adduction and internal rotation. The rupture most likely involves which anatomical location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sternal head at the humeral insertion
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures classicially occur in weightlifters doing the bench press during the eccentric phase. The sternal head at or near its insertion on the humerus is the most frequently injured portion due to the maximal tension it experiences at the bottom of the lift.
Question 6464
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and internal rotation weakness following a fall onto an outstretched hand. The examiner notes a positive belly-press test. Which of the following nerves innervates the primary muscle evaluated by this specific test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular nerve
Explanation
The belly-press test evaluates the subscapularis muscle. The subscapularis is innervated by both the upper and lower subscapular nerves, which originate from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.
Question 6465
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 28-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his anterior axilla while performing a heavy bench press. Examination reveals an asymmetric axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation and adduction. Which aspect of the pectoralis major is most commonly ruptured in this specific scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clavicular head at the muscle belly
Explanation
Pectoralis major ruptures most commonly occur at the humeral insertion in weightlifters performing the bench press. The sternal head is preferentially loaded and ruptures first because it is placed under maximal stretch when the arm is extended, abducted, and externally rotated.
Question 6466
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 4-year-old boy presents with a 2-day history of right hip pain and refusing to bear weight. His temperature is 38.8 Celsius (101.8 F). Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 13,000/mm3, ESR of 45 mm/hr, and CRP of 3.0 mg/dL. Radiographs of the hip are normal. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Discharge home with oral NSAIDs and follow-up in 48 hours
Explanation
This patient meets all four Kocher criteria for septic arthritis (non-weight-bearing, temp >38.5 C, ESR >40, WBC >12,000), giving a 99% probability of the diagnosis. Urgent hip aspiration is required for definitive diagnosis and to guide treatment before considering surgical irrigation.
Question 6467
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 3-year-old boy presents with a temperature of 38.8°C, an ESR of 45 mm/hr, a WBC count of 14,000/mm³, and refusal to bear weight on his left leg. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the approximate probability that this child has septic arthritis of the hip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 99%
Explanation
The patient meets all 4 of the classic Kocher criteria (fever >38.5°C, ESR >40, WBC >12,000, and non-weight-bearing). The presence of all 4 criteria correlates with a 99% predictive probability for septic arthritis of the hip.
Question 6468
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 5-year-old boy presents with a limp, a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F), and an inability to bear weight on his right leg. Laboratory tests show an ESR of 55 mm/hr and a WBC count of 14,000/mm3. According to the modified Kocher criteria, what is the predictive probability that this child has septic arthritis of the hip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10%
Explanation
The modified Kocher criteria include fever >38.5°C, inability to bear weight, ESR >40 mm/hr, and WBC >12,000/mm3. The presence of all four criteria yields a 99% probability of septic arthritis.
Question 6469
Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 4-year-old boy presents with a 2-day history of right hip pain, a temperature of 38.8°C, and refusal to bear weight. Laboratory tests show an ESR of 50 mm/hr and a WBC of 14,000/mm³. Radiographs are unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ultrasound-guided aspiration of the hip
Explanation
The patient meets 4 of 4 Kocher criteria for septic arthritis (fever, non-weight bearing, ESR >40, WBC >12,000). Ultrasound-guided aspiration is required to confirm the diagnosis and decompress the joint.
Question 6470
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 6-year-old boy falls on an outstretched hand and sustains an extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture, which is displaced posteromedially. Which nerve is most commonly at risk with this specific displacement pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
Posteromedial displacement of an extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture causes the proximal fragment to translate anterolaterally, putting the radial nerve at greatest risk. Posterolateral displacement endangers the anterior interosseous nerve.
Question 6471
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 4-year-old boy with blue sclerae and a history of four extremity fractures after minimal trauma is diagnosed with severe Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI). Which of the following pharmacological therapies is currently the standard of care to decrease fracture incidence and increase bone mineral density in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intravenous pamidronate
Explanation
Intravenous bisphosphonates (such as pamidronate or zoledronic acid) are the standard of care for children with moderate to severe Osteogenesis Imperfecta. They inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, which leads to increased bone mineral density, decreased bone pain, and a significant reduction in the incidence of fractures.
Question 6472
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 4-year-old child with a history of recurrent fractures, blue sclerae, and dentinogenesis imperfecta is diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) type III. In order to decrease the fracture burden and correct progressive long-bone deformities, what is the current gold standard combined medical and surgical management strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intravenous bisphosphonates and telescopic intramedullary rodding
Explanation
The medical management of severe osteogenesis imperfecta heavily relies on bisphosphonates (often administered intravenously, like pamidronate), which inhibit osteoclast resorption and increase bone density, significantly reducing fracture rates. Surgically, the use of telescopic (growing) intramedullary rods, such as the Fassier-Duval rod, is the gold standard for long-bone deformities in growing children with OI. Telescopic rods accommodate growth, providing internal splinting that decreases the likelihood of recurrent fractures and rod migration compared to static solid nails or plates.
Question 6473
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 3-year-old girl with blue sclerae and dentinogenesis imperfecta presents with her third low-energy long bone fracture. Genetic testing confirms a mutation affecting type I collagen. Which of the following systemic pharmacological treatments is most commonly indicated to decrease fracture incidence and improve bone mass in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recombinant human growth hormone
Explanation
The patient's clinical presentation and genetic defect are consistent with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI). Intravenous bisphosphonates, such as pamidronate or zoledronic acid, are the current gold standard medical therapy for moderate to severe pediatric OI. By inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, bisphosphonates increase bone mineral density, decrease the frequency of fractures, and often alleviate chronic bone pain. Teriparatide is generally contraindicated in children with open physes.
Question 6474
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old woman sustains a posterior hip dislocation during a high-speed collision. After closed reduction, she exhibits a foot drop and decreased sensation over the dorsum of her foot. Which portion of the sciatic nerve is most vulnerable in this injury, and what specific area of sensory loss is most diagnostic for its isolated injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibial division; sole of the foot
Explanation
The peroneal (fibular) division of the sciatic nerve is uniquely tethered at the sciatic notch and is anatomically positioned lateral and posterior, making it most susceptible to stretching during a posterior hip dislocation. Sensory loss in the first dorsal web space (deep peroneal nerve territory) is characteristic.
Question 6475
Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 68-year-old woman with a 9-year history of alendronate therapy reports an insidious onset of right thigh pain. Radiographs reveal focal lateral cortical thickening of the proximal femoral diaphysis with a subtle, transverse radiolucent line extending through the lateral cortex. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Discontinue alendronate and prescribe strict bed rest for 6 weeks
Explanation
This patient has an impending atypical femur fracture (AFF) associated with long-term bisphosphonate use. Because she has prodromal thigh pain and a visible transverse radiolucent line, prophylactic fixation with a cephalomedullary nail is indicated to prevent completion of the fracture.
Question 6476
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following clinical postures is most characteristic of a patient presenting with an obturator-type anterior hip dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hip flexed, adducted, and internally rotated
Explanation
Anterior hip dislocations present with the hip externally rotated and abducted. If it is an inferior (obturator) type, the hip is concurrently flexed; if it is a superior (pubic) type, the hip is extended.
Question 6477
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old unrestrained driver is involved in a motor vehicle collision. In the emergency department, his right lower extremity is shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. He is unable to dorsiflex his right foot or extend his toes. What is the most likely direction of his hip dislocation and the specific injured nerve branch?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior; tibial division of sciatic nerve
Explanation
Posterior hip dislocations classically present with a shortened, adducted, and internally rotated limb. The common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is the most commonly injured nerve branch due to its lateral position and tethering at the sciatic notch.
Question 6478
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 25-year-old skier crashes and presents to the emergency department with severe groin pain. On examination, his right hip is held in a position of marked flexion, abduction, and external rotation. Radiographs confirm an anterior hip dislocation. Which anatomical structure is most at risk of injury in this specific dislocation pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sciatic nerve
Explanation
Anterior hip dislocations of the inferior (obturator) type present with the hip in marked flexion, abduction, and external rotation. The displaced femoral head poses a direct risk to the neurovascular structures in the femoral triangle, particularly the femoral artery and vein.
Question 6479
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
The primary blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the adult femoral head is derived from which of the following vessels?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Artery of the ligamentum teres
Explanation
The main blood supply to the adult femoral head is the lateral epiphyseal artery. This vessel is the terminal branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) and provides critical perfusion to the superolateral weight-bearing portion of the femoral head.
Question 6480
Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
A 30-year-old man suffers a posterior hip dislocation. Two attempts at closed reduction under conscious sedation are unsuccessful. During the subsequent open reduction via a posterior Kocher-Langenbeck approach, which of the following structures is most likely found to be obstructing the reduction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Rectus femoris
Explanation
In irreducible posterior hip dislocations, the femoral head often "buttonholes" through the posterior capsule or the short external rotators. The piriformis muscle and the obturator internus are the most common anatomical structures that block successful closed reduction.
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