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Question 6421

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The anterolateral (Watson-Jones) approach to the hip utilizes a superficial interval between the tensor fasciae latae and the gluteus medius. What is the innervation of these two muscles respectively?

. TFL: Femoral nerve; Gluteus medius: Superior gluteal nerve
. TFL: Superior gluteal nerve; Gluteus medius: Inferior gluteal nerve
. Both are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve
. Both are innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve
. TFL: Superior gluteal nerve; Gluteus medius: Femoral nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TFL: Femoral nerve; Gluteus medius: Superior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The superficial interval of the anterolateral approach to the hip passes between the tensor fasciae latae and gluteus medius. This is not a true internervous plane, as both muscles are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

Question 6422

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the coracoid process may be osteotomized to improve exposure. The surgeon must be careful to avoid placing retractors too distally on the conjoined tendon to prevent injury to which nerve?

. Axillary nerve
. Median nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis (part of the conjoined tendon) approximately 5 to 8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid process. Retractors placed distal to this point can cause neurapraxia or permanent nerve injury.

Question 6423

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When performing the volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, the surgeon develops the interval between the pronator teres and the brachioradialis. Which vascular structure must be ligated and divided to fully mobilize the mobile wad laterally?

. Anterior interosseous artery
. Posterior interosseous artery
. Radial recurrent artery
. Ulnar recurrent artery
. Common interosseous artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior interosseous artery


Explanation

The radial recurrent artery (along with its accompanying veins, known as the "leash of Henry") crosses the surgical field transversely in the proximal volar approach to the forearm. It must be ligated to allow lateral retraction of the brachioradialis and radial nerve.

Question 6424

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient develops weakness of the deltoid and teres minor following a posterior shoulder dislocation. The injured nerve passes through the quadrangular space. What muscle forms the superior border of this anatomic space?

. Teres major
. Teres minor
. Long head of the triceps
. Surgical neck of the humerus
. Infraspinatus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres major


Explanation

The quadrangular space transmits the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. Its superior border is the teres minor, inferior border is the teres major, medial border is the long head of the triceps, and lateral border is the humeral surgical neck.

Question 6425

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A hamstring autograft is being harvested for an ACL reconstruction. The surgeon isolates the gracilis and semitendinosus tendons. What is the respective nerve supply to the individual muscles comprising the pes anserinus (Sartorius, Gracilis, Semitendinosus)?

. Femoral, Obturator, Tibial
. Femoral, Tibial, Tibial
. Obturator, Obturator, Tibial
. Superior gluteal, Femoral, Tibial
. Femoral, Tibial, Common Peroneal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral, Obturator, Tibial


Explanation

The pes anserinus is composed of the conjoined tendons of the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve), gracilis (obturator nerve), and semitendinosus (tibial nerve).

Question 6426

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a lateral transpsoas approach to the lumbar spine (LLIF), the surgeon must navigate the lumbar plexus carefully to avoid neurologic deficit. Which nerve is classically found emerging directly from the anterior surface of the psoas major muscle?

. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Genitofemoral nerve
. Ilioinguinal nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve


Explanation

The genitofemoral nerve pierces and emerges from the anterior surface of the psoas major muscle. In contrast, the femoral nerve emerges from its lateral border, and the obturator nerve emerges from its medial border.

Question 6427

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip exploits a true internervous plane. Which two nerves supply the respective muscles that form the superficial interval of this approach?

. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve
. Femoral nerve and Inferior gluteal nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve and Obturator nerve
. Sciatic nerve and Femoral nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve and Inferior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The superficial interval of the Smith-Petersen approach is between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve), establishing a true internervous plane.

Question 6428

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a posterior approach to the hip (Moore or Southern), the short external rotators are tenotomized and reflected posteriorly. Which structure is most at risk if the piriformis is not carefully protected, specifically considering common anatomical variants?

. Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Pudendal nerve
. Femoral nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve


Explanation

The sciatic nerve typically exits the pelvis inferior to the piriformis, but in up to 15% of the population, a portion (usually the common peroneal division) pierces or exits superior to the piriformis, placing it at high risk during tenotomy.

Question 6429

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When performing a direct lateral (deltoid-splitting) approach to the proximal humerus for open reduction and internal fixation, what is the maximum safe distance from the tip of the acromion to extend the split without risking denervation of the anterior deltoid?

. 2 cm
. 5 cm
. 8 cm
. 10 cm
. 12 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 cm


Explanation

The axillary nerve courses from posterior to anterior on the deep surface of the deltoid approximately 5 to 7 cm distal to the lateral edge of the acromion. Splitting the deltoid beyond 5 cm puts the nerve at significant risk.

Question 6430

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

During a volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, the surgeon supinates the forearm to protect the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN). Supination moves the PIN in which direction relative to the anterior surgical exposure?

. Anteriorly
. Posteriorly
. Proximally
. Distally
. Medially

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteriorly


Explanation

The PIN runs within the substance of the supinator muscle. Supinating the forearm winds the supinator laterally and posteriorly around the radius, moving the PIN safely away from the anterior dissection field.

Question 6431

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When performing an anterior approach to the hip (Smith-Petersen), the superficial internervous plane is between the sartorius and tensor fasciae latae (TFL). Which nerve innervates the muscle forming the medial border of this interval?

. Superior gluteal nerve
. Inferior gluteal nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Sciatic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The sartorius forms the medial border of the Smith-Petersen approach and is innervated by the femoral nerve. The lateral border is the TFL, which is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

Question 6432

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When placing half-pins for a humeral external fixator from a lateral approach, the radial nerve is at risk. At what location does the radial nerve predictably pierce the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment?

. 5 cm proximal to the radiocapitellar joint
. 10 cm proximal to the radiocapitellar joint
. 15 cm proximal to the radiocapitellar joint
. 5 cm distal to the greater tuberosity
. 10 cm distal to the greater tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 5 cm proximal to the radiocapitellar joint


Explanation

The radial nerve transitions from the posterior to the anterior compartment by piercing the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 cm (range 10-12 cm) proximal to the radiocapitellar joint.

Question 6433

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

During the placement of pedicle screws at the L4 level, the surgeon breaches the inferior wall of the L4 pedicle. Which nerve root is most directly at risk of injury due to this specific breach?

. L3
. L4
. L5
. S1
. S2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L3


Explanation

The exiting L4 nerve root travels immediately inferior to the L4 pedicle. A breach of the inferior wall of the L4 pedicle puts the L4 exiting nerve root at high risk of iatrogenic injury.

Question 6434

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, a portal is established posterior to the acromioclavicular joint. If the portal or dissection is extended more than 5 cm inferiorly from the lateral acromion edge, which nerve is at greatest risk of injury?

. Suprascapular nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve courses horizontally along the deep surface of the deltoid, approximately 5 cm distal to the lateral border of the acromion. Extending lateral portals or splits too far inferiorly places this nerve at significant risk.

Question 6435

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum, severe hemorrhage is encountered while dissecting posterior to the superior pubic ramus. This is most likely due to an unligated vascular anastomosis between which two systems?

. External iliac and internal iliac
. Femoral and internal pudendal
. External iliac and femoral
. Superior gluteal and internal iliac
. Obturator and internal pudendal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac and internal iliac


Explanation

The corona mortis is a prominent vascular anastomosis between the obturator vessels (internal iliac system) and the inferior epigastric vessels (external iliac system). It lies over the superior pubic ramus and can cause life-threatening bleeding if inadvertently torn.

Question 6436

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient undergoes a lateral transpsoas interbody fusion at L4-L5. Postoperatively, they display profound weakness in hip flexion and knee extension, along with anterior thigh numbness. Which nerve was most likely injured?

. Obturator nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Ilioinguinal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator nerve


Explanation

The femoral nerve courses through the posterior aspect of the psoas major muscle and is particularly vulnerable during a transpsoas approach at the L4-L5 disc space. Injury results in quadriceps weakness and sensory deficits over the anterior thigh.

Question 6437

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

An isolated fracture of the fibular shaft is approached surgically. The surgeon utilizes the internervous plane between the lateral and superficial posterior compartments of the leg. Which two muscles define this specific surgical interval?

. Tibialis anterior and peroneus longus
. Peroneus brevis and soleus
. Flexor hallucis longus and soleus
. Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus
. Extensor digitorum longus and peroneus longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibialis anterior and peroneus longus


Explanation

The internervous plane for the lateral approach to the fibula is between the peroneus brevis (superficial peroneal nerve) and the soleus (tibial nerve). This safely separates the lateral and superficial posterior compartments.

Question 6438

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 45-year-old man sustains a proximal humerus fracture and subsequently demonstrates weakness in shoulder abduction and diminished sensation over the lateral deltoid. The affected nerve exits the axilla through the quadrangular space. Which of the following defines the superior border of this anatomic space?

. Teres major
. Teres minor
. Long head of the triceps
. Surgical neck of the humerus
. Infraspinatus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres major


Explanation

The quadrangular space is bordered superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. It transmits the axillary nerve and the posterior humeral circumflex artery.

Question 6439

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A surgeon is performing an open reduction internal fixation of an acetabular fracture via the ilioinguinal approach. If a Smith-Petersen extension is utilized, the superficial internervous plane lies between muscles innervated by which two nerves?

. Femoral nerve and Obturator nerve
. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve and Inferior gluteal nerve
. Femoral nerve and Sciatic nerve
. Obturator nerve and Sciatic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve and Obturator nerve


Explanation

The superficial interval of the Smith-Petersen (anterior) approach to the hip lies between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep interval is between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 6440

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

While performing an ilioinguinal approach for a transverse acetabular fracture, life-threatening hemorrhage occurs near the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding is most likely originating from the corona mortis, which represents an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?

. External iliac and internal pudendal
. External iliac and obturator
. Internal iliac and superior gluteal
. Inferior epigastric and internal pudendal
. Femoral and medial circumflex femoral

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac and internal pudendal


Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or deep inferior epigastric) and obturator (internal iliac) vessels. It rests on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and is highly vulnerable during anterior pelvic surgical approaches.