Menu

Question 6081

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, brisk arterial bleeding is encountered near the superior pubic ramus approximately 5 cm from the pubic symphysis. This bleeding is most likely arising from an anastomosis between which of the following vessel pairs?

. Internal iliac and external pudendal vessels
. External iliac and obturator vessels
. Internal pudendal and superior gluteal vessels
. Inferior epigastric and internal pudendal vessels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior epigastric and internal pudendal vessels


Explanation

The corona mortis is a critical vascular anastomosis between the external iliac (or inferior epigastric) system and the obturator vessels. It is found traversing the superior pubic ramus and is highly vulnerable during anterior pelvic and acetabular approaches.

Question 6082

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 68-year-old woman on long-term alendronate therapy presents with chronic left thigh pain. Radiographs demonstrate lateral cortical thickening and a transverse radiolucent line in the subtrochanteric region of the femur. Which of the following describes the fundamental pathophysiology of this specific fracture type?

. Increased osteoclast-mediated bone resorption
. Severely suppressed bone turnover leading to accumulated microdamage
. Defective mineralization of newly formed osteoid
. Vitamin D deficiency causing secondary hyperparathyroidism

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severely suppressed bone turnover leading to accumulated microdamage


Explanation

Bisphosphonate-related atypical femoral fractures are stress fractures that occur due to prolonged, severe suppression of normal bone turnover. This prevents the remodeling of normal microdamage, eventually leading to structural failure on the tension (lateral) side of the femur.

Question 6083

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 32-year-old man is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a displaced posterior wall acetabular fracture with a posterior hip dislocation.

Following emergent closed reduction of the hip, CT imaging confirms a large, single-piece posterior wall fragment. Which of the following surgical approaches is most appropriate for definitive fixation?

. Ilioinguinal approach
. Kocher-Langenbeck approach
. Modified Stoppa approach
. Smith-Petersen approach
. Extended iliofemoral approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kocher-Langenbeck approach


Explanation

The Kocher-Langenbeck approach is the standard approach for isolated posterior wall and posterior column acetabular fractures. It allows direct visualization and buttress plating of the posterior wall.

Question 6084

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When utilizing the ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, the surgeon must identify and ligate the 'corona mortis'. This structure represents an anastomosis between the obturator vessels and the:

. Internal pudendal vessels
. Superior gluteal vessels
. External iliac or deep inferior epigastric vessels
. Femoral vessels
. Internal iliac vessels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac or deep inferior epigastric vessels


Explanation

The corona mortis is an important vascular anastomosis crossing the superior pubic ramus. It connects the obturator vessels with the external iliac or deep inferior epigastric vessels and can cause massive hemorrhage if torn.

Question 6085

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a crushing injury to his pelvis.

He has blood at the urethral meatus and a high-riding prostate on digital rectal exam. What is the most appropriate next step in his urologic evaluation?

. Immediate placement of a Foley catheter
. Retrograde urethrogram (RUG)
. Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
. CT cystogram
. Suprapubic catheter placement by orthopedics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Retrograde urethrogram (RUG)


Explanation

Blood at the meatus and a high-riding prostate indicate a potential urethral injury. A retrograde urethrogram (RUG) must be performed before any attempt at Foley catheter placement to avoid converting a partial tear into a complete transection.

Question 6086

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During the surgical fixation of an anterior column acetabular fracture via an ilioinguinal approach, significant arterial hemorrhage is encountered posterior to the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding is most likely originating from an anastomosis between the obturator vessels and which of the following?

. Internal iliac artery
. External iliac or inferior epigastric artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Internal pudendal artery
. Femoral artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac or inferior epigastric artery


Explanation

The corona mortis is a vascular anastomosis between the obturator vessels and the external iliac or inferior epigastric vessels. It crosses the superior pubic ramus and is at high risk during the ilioinguinal or Stoppa approaches.

Question 6087

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During the surgical management of an anterior column acetabular fracture via the modified Stoppa approach, a retropubic vascular anastomosis is encountered. Injury to this structure, often called the "corona mortis," can cause massive hemorrhage. This structure typically represents an anastomosis between which of the following vessels?

. Internal iliac artery and superior gluteal artery
. Inferior epigastric (or external iliac) vessels and obturator vessels
. Internal pudendal artery and external pudendal artery
. Deep circumflex iliac artery and femoral artery
. Superior vesical artery and middle rectal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior epigastric (or external iliac) vessels and obturator vessels


Explanation

The corona mortis is a critical retropubic vascular anastomosis connecting the external iliac system (typically the inferior epigastric vessels) and the internal iliac system (obturator vessels). It crosses the superior pubic ramus and is highly vulnerable to iatrogenic injury during the ilioinguinal or modified Stoppa approaches.

Question 6088

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 68-year-old woman with a 10-year history of alendronate use presents with chronic thigh pain. Radiographs reveal focal lateral cortical thickening and a transverse radiolucent line in the subtrochanteric region. What is the most appropriate prophylactic management?

. Cease alendronate and observe with protected weight-bearing
. Prophylactic lateral locked plate and screw construct
. Full weight-bearing physical therapy to stimulate bone healing
. Cease alendronate and perform prophylactic cephalomedullary nailing
. Switch immediately to denosumab therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cease alendronate and perform prophylactic cephalomedullary nailing


Explanation

The patient has an impending atypical femur fracture associated with long-term bisphosphonate use. Cephalomedullary nailing is the prophylactic treatment of choice for symptomatic impending atypical femur fractures.

Question 6089

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 72-year-old woman on long-term alendronate therapy presents with a displaced subtrochanteric fracture of the right femur after a mechanical fall from standing height. She reports a 3-month history of left anterior thigh pain. Left femur radiographs reveal lateral cortical thickening and a transverse radiolucent line. What is the recommended management for the contralateral (left) limb?

. Discontinue alendronate and observe with protected weight bearing
. Discontinue alendronate and perform prophylactic cephalomedullary nailing
. Switch to denosumab and perform dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
. Immediate bilateral simultaneous locked plate fixation
. Initiate teriparatide therapy and apply a hip spica cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discontinue alendronate and perform prophylactic cephalomedullary nailing


Explanation

Atypical femur fractures are highly associated with prolonged bisphosphonate use and frequently present bilaterally. Symptomatic patients with radiographic signs of an impending atypical fracture (lateral cortical thickening and beaking) should discontinue the bisphosphonate and undergo prophylactic intramedullary nailing to prevent completion of the fracture.

Question 6090

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 65-year-old woman on long-term alendronate therapy presents with an atraumatic subtrochanteric femur fracture. Which of the following radiographic features is considered a hallmark of a bisphosphonate-related atypical femur fracture?

. Medial cortical spiking
. Lateral cortical thickening (beaking)
. Extensive posteromedial comminution
. Global thinning of the diaphyseal cortices
. A large butterfly fragment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral cortical thickening (beaking)


Explanation

Atypical femur fractures associated with prolonged bisphosphonate use characteristically present as transverse or short oblique fracture lines originating at the lateral cortex. They are associated with localized lateral cortical thickening (beaking) and a lack of comminution.

Question 6091

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 65-year-old woman, who has been taking alendronate for 12 years, presents with a low-energy transverse subtrochanteric femur fracture. Radiographs show lateral cortical thickening and a medial spike. Following cephalomedullary nailing of the fracture, what is the most appropriate pharmacological recommendation?

. Discontinue alendronate and begin teriparatide
. Continue alendronate at a higher dose
. Switch alendronate to intravenous zoledronic acid
. Start methotrexate therapy
. Initiate localized radiation therapy to prevent heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discontinue alendronate and begin teriparatide


Explanation

This is a classic atypical femur fracture associated with long-term bisphosphonate use, which severely suppresses bone remodeling. Bisphosphonates must be stopped, and teriparatide (recombinant PTH) is often started due to its anabolic effect to aid in fracture healing.

Question 6092

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 35-year-old pedestrian is struck by a truck, sustaining a severe crush injury to the right lower extremity with a mangled lower leg. When evaluating the patient for potential amputation versus limb salvage, which of the following is NOT a formal component of the Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS)?

. Skeletal and soft-tissue injury energy level
. Limb ischemia duration and severity
. Systemic shock
. Patient age
. Major motor nerve deficit

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Major motor nerve deficit


Explanation

The components of the Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) are skeletal/soft-tissue injury, limb ischemia, shock, and patient age. While severe nerve deficits heavily influence clinical decision-making, they are not a formal scoring criterion within the traditional MESS system.

Question 6093

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 55-year-old man sustains a severe crush injury to his leg resulting in a mangled extremity. The surgeon is calculating the Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) to help guide the decision between amputation and salvage. Which of the following is NOT a component of the MESS?

. Skeletal and soft-tissue injury severity
. Limb ischemia
. Shock
. Patient age
. Presence of a peripheral nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a peripheral nerve injury


Explanation

The Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) evaluates skeletal and soft-tissue damage, limb ischemia, shock, and patient age. While peripheral nerve injury affects functional outcomes, it is not an independent parameter in the MESS calculation.

Question 6094

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 26-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, he is noted to have weakness with shoulder abduction and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the deltoid. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Long thoracic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in anterior shoulder dislocations. It innervates the deltoid and teres minor, providing sensation to the lateral shoulder.

Question 6095

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 32-year-old woman sustains a closed, isolated midshaft humerus fracture. She presents with a wrist drop and inability to extend her metacarpophalangeal joints. What is the most appropriate initial management of her nerve injury?

. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Electromyography (EMG) testing in the emergency department
. Observation and supportive splinting
. Emergent MRI of the arm
. Primary nerve grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and supportive splinting


Explanation

Primary radial nerve palsies associated with closed humeral shaft fractures are mostly neuropraxias and typically recover spontaneously. Observation and supportive splinting for 3-4 months is the initial management of choice.

Question 6096

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 65-year-old woman sustains a volar-displaced distal radius fracture. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during a standard Henry (volar) surgical approach for plate osteosynthesis?

. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve
. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve
. Superficial radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve


Explanation

The palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve courses in the interval between the flexor carpi radialis (FCR) and palmaris longus. It is at high risk of injury during the volar Henry approach if retractors are carelessly placed ulnar to the FCR tendon.

Question 6097

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 45-year-old unrestrained driver is involved in a head-on collision and sustains a traumatic posterior hip dislocation. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely present in the affected lower extremity?

. Shortened, externally rotated, and abducted
. Shortened, internally rotated, and adducted
. Lengthened, externally rotated, and abducted
. Lengthened, internally rotated, and adducted
. Shortened, externally rotated, and adducted

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shortened, internally rotated, and adducted


Explanation

Posterior hip dislocations classically present with the affected limb shortened, internally rotated, and adducted. Conversely, anterior hip dislocations typically present with the leg externally rotated and abducted.

Question 6098

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old male suffers a closed, mid-shaft humeral fracture. Neurological examination reveals a wrist drop and inability to extend the metacarpophalangeal joints. The fracture is treated with a functional brace. At 12 weeks, there is no clinical or electromyographic (EMG) evidence of radial nerve recovery. What is the next best step?

. Continued bracing and observation for another 6 weeks
. Immediate tendon transfers
. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Switching to an airplane splint
. Amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical exploration of the radial nerve


Explanation

Most radial nerve palsies associated with closed humeral shaft fractures represent a neuropraxia and resolve spontaneously. However, the lack of clinical and EMG recovery at 12 to 16 weeks is a strict indication for surgical exploration of the radial nerve.

Question 6099

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 45-year-old male laborer falls from a height and sustains a completely displaced, closed transverse fracture of the acetabulum with a large posterior wall component. Which surgical approach provides the most direct access to visualize and reduce the posterior wall and posterior column?

. Ilioinguinal approach
. Modified Stoppa approach
. Kocher-Langenbeck approach
. Smith-Petersen approach
. Watson-Jones approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kocher-Langenbeck approach


Explanation

The Kocher-Langenbeck approach is the standard and most frequently used posterior approach to the acetabulum. It provides excellent direct visualization for the anatomical reduction and stable internal fixation of posterior column and posterior wall fractures.

Question 6100

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 68-year-old man with known cervical spondylosis falls forward and strikes his chin, resulting in a hyperextension injury of the neck. Examination reveals motor weakness that is significantly worse in his upper extremities than in his lower extremities, along with patchy sensory loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Anterior cord syndrome
. Central cord syndrome
. Brown-Sequard syndrome
. Posterior cord syndrome
. Conus medullaris syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central cord syndrome


Explanation

Central cord syndrome typically occurs in older patients with underlying cervical spondylosis who sustain a hyperextension injury. The central location of the cervical tracts for the upper extremities causes greater weakness in the arms compared to the legs.