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Question 481

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following accurately describes this radiograph (Slide):
. Catterall 2
. Catterall 3
. Lateral pillar C
. Stulberg 3
. Salter-Thompson A

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral pillar C


Explanation

According to Herring's classification, this radiograph demonstrates a lateral pillar C because the lateral pillar is collapsed by more than 50%.

Question 482

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 4-year-old boy presents with delayed motor milestones and uses his hands to walk up his thighs to stand. Laboratory testing reveals significantly elevated creatine kinase. A muscle biopsy would most likely show an absence of which protein?

. Dystrophin
. Survival motor neuron protein
. Frataxin
. Peripheral myelin protein 22
. Collagen type I

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Dystrophin


Explanation

The clinical presentation describes Gowers' sign, hallmark for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD). DMD is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the DMD gene, leading to absent dystrophin protein.

Question 483

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 5-year-old boy presents with anterolateral bowing of the tibia and multiple café-au-lait macules. Radiographs demonstrate diaphyseal narrowing and a pseudarthrosis. What is the primary underlying cellular defect in the pseudarthrosis tissue?
. Increased osteoclast activity and deficient osteoblast function
. Overexpression of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3)
. Mutation in the COL1A1 gene
. Absent dystrophin protein
. Accumulation of mucopolysaccharides

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased osteoclast activity and deficient osteoblast function


Explanation

Congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia in Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1) is driven by a local loss of neurofibromin. This leads to increased osteoclast activity and diminished osteoblast function in the local hamartomatous tissue.

Question 484

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

In a sonogram, the normal alpha angle of the neonatal hip measures:

. <50°
. <40°
. <30°
. >50°
. >75°

Correct Answer & Explanation

. >50°


Explanation

The alpha angle is the acute angle formed by the lateral wall of the ilium and the extension of the acetabular roof. This angle varies inversely with the acetabular index as seen on plain radiographs. An angle >50° is normal.

Question 485

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy in a female patient could be explained if the patient had which of the following:

. Addison disease
. Turner syndrome
. Trisomy 21
. Klinefelter syndrome
. Fragile X syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Turner syndrome


Explanation

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common form of muscular dystrophy, affecting one in 3,300 males. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive defect that results from the absence of dystrophin. It may be expressed in females with Turner syndrome, which is the presence of a single X chromosome. Such patients would otherwise be carriers of Duchenne muscular dystrophy but express this recessive disorder because they only have one X chromosome. Duchenne muscular dystrophy would not occur in Klinefelter syndrome, which involves the presence of an extra X chromosome, or in trisomy 21. Steroids can help mitigate the phenotype; therefore Addison disease (hypercortisonism) would not produce the disorder. Fragile X is the most common form of inherited mental retardation but affects only males.

Question 486

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Which of the following agents is contraindicated in children with open physes:

. Pamidronate
. Alendronate
. Etidronate
. Teriparatide
. C alcium carbonate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teriparatide


Explanation

Teriparatide, or Forteo (Eli Lilly and C ompany, Indianapolis, Ind), is contraindicated in children with open physes because of a concern for the risk of osteosarcoma.

Question 487

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 14-year-old girl is diagnosed with a traumatic posterior hip dislocation. Closed reduction is performed in the emergency department within 2 hours. Post-reduction CT scan reveals a 2 mm intra-articular fragment. The joint is congruent. What is the next best step in management?

. Immediate surgical hip dislocation to remove the fragment
. Observation with protected weight bearing
. Spica casting for 6 weeks
. Open reduction via a Kocher-Langenbeck approach
. Skeletal traction for 3 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with protected weight bearing


Explanation

Small (<2-3 mm) intra-articular fragments that do not cause joint incongruity or block reduction can typically be managed nonoperatively with observation and protected weight-bearing.

Question 488

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 4-year-old boy presents with right hip pain, a temperature of 38.8°C, an ESR of 50 mm/hr, and a WBC count of 14,000 cells/mm³. He refuses to bear weight. According to the Kocher criteria, what is the probability that he has septic arthritis?
. < 10%
. 30-40%
. 50-60%
. 70-80%
. > 90%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. > 90%


Explanation

The patient meets all 4 Kocher criteria (fever >38.5°C, non-weight-bearing, ESR >40, WBC >12,000). The presence of 4 criteria correlates with a 93% to 99% probability of septic arthritis.

Question 489

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 9-year-old girl presents with precocious puberty, café-au-lait spots with irregular borders, and multiple lytic bone lesions with a ground-glass appearance. The pathogenesis of this condition is most directly related to a mutation in which of the following?
. GNAS1 gene leading to increased cAMP
. EXT1 gene leading to decreased heparan sulfate
. SQSTM1 gene leading to increased osteoclast activity
. FGFR3 gene leading to defective endochondral ossification
. RUNX2 gene leading to defective osteoblast differentiation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS1 gene leading to increased cAMP


Explanation

McCune-Albright syndrome is caused by a sporadic, post-zygotic activating mutation in the GNAS1 gene. This leads to continuous activation of adenylyl cyclase and increased intracellular cAMP, affecting multiple endocrine and skeletal tissues.

Question 490

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials

What is the recommended definitive management for an adult patient diagnosed with a confirmed adamantinoma of the tibia?

. Curettage and polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) packing
. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by limb salvage
. Wide en bloc resection and reconstruction
. Primary amputation
. Radiotherapy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide en bloc resection and reconstruction


Explanation

Adamantinoma is a low-grade, indolent malignancy that does not respond reliably to chemotherapy or radiation. The treatment of choice is wide en bloc resection to achieve negative margins, typically followed by reconstructive procedures like osteoarticular allograft or vascularized fibula grafting.

Question 491

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 65-year-old man of European descent presents with deep, aching pain in his right pelvis and thigh, accompanied by increasing head size. Laboratory studies show normal serum calcium, normal phosphorus, and markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase.

Which gene mutation is most strongly associated with the familial form of this disease?

. GNAS1
. SQSTM1
. EXT1
. RUNX2
. COL1A1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SQSTM1


Explanation

The patient has Paget's disease of bone, characterized by isolated elevated alkaline phosphatase and bone enlargement. Mutations in the SQSTM1 (p62) gene are present in up to 30% of familial Paget's disease cases, leading to increased osteoclast activity.

Question 492

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 55-year-old female with symptomatic Paget's disease of the femur is started on a nitrogen-containing bisphosphonate (e.g., zoledronate). What is the primary molecular mechanism of action of this medication in treating her condition?

. Inhibition of the RANKL pathway
. Inhibition of farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase in the mevalonate pathway
. Direct stimulation of osteoblast apoptosis
. Binding to hydroxyapatite and increasing osteoclast proliferation
. Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inhibition of farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase in the mevalonate pathway


Explanation

Nitrogen-containing bisphosphonates inhibit farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase within the osteoclast mevalonate pathway. This prevents protein prenylation, causing osteoclast apoptosis and drastically reducing the hyperactive bone resorption seen in Paget's disease.

Question 493

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

In Paget's disease of bone, which of the following phases is characterized by a pathognomonic "mosaic" pattern of lamellar bone with prominent cement lines upon histological examination?

. The initial osteolytic phase
. The mixed osteoclastic-osteoblastic phase
. The late osteosclerotic (inactive) phase
. The malignant transformation phase
. The inflammatory phase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The late osteosclerotic (inactive) phase


Explanation

The late osteosclerotic (or burnt-out) phase of Paget's disease features dense, hypovascular bone with a disorganized "mosaic" or "jigsaw puzzle" pattern of prominent cement lines. This results from chaotic, rapid bone remodeling during the preceding mixed phase.

Question 494

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 30-year-old patient with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia complains of intractable bone pain in the pelvis and lower extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial medical therapy?

. Oral calcium and Vitamin D
. Intravenous pamidronate
. Subcutaneous denosumab
. Oral methotrexate
. Oral indomethacin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravenous pamidronate


Explanation

Intravenous bisphosphonates, such as pamidronate, are considered the medical treatment of choice for alleviating bone pain and reducing the rate of osteoclastic resorption in polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.

Question 495

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 35-year-old female presents with an unresectable giant cell tumor of the sacrum. Which of the following targeted biologic therapies is most appropriate?

. Imatinib
. Denosumab
. Bevacizumab
. Rituximab
. Trastuzumab

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Denosumab


Explanation

Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody against RANKL. It is FDA-approved for adults and skeletally mature adolescents with giant cell tumors of bone that are unresectable or where surgical resection would cause severe morbidity.

Question 496

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 3-year-old boy presents with anterior bowing of his tibia. Radiographs show a well-circumscribed, intracortical osteolytic lesion involving the anterior tibial diaphysis. Biopsy reveals benign fibrous tissue with woven bone trabeculae lined by prominent osteoblasts. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Wide en bloc resection
. Curettage and bone grafting
. Observation alone
. Intramedullary nailing
. Radiation therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation alone


Explanation

Osteofibrous dysplasia (Campanacci disease) typically affects the anterior cortex of the tibia in young children. Observation is the standard of care as most lesions stabilize or regress after skeletal maturity.

Question 497

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 16-year-old boy undergoes a biopsy of a solitary radiolucent lesion in the proximal femur with a 'ground-glass' matrix. The histological evaluation demonstrates trabeculae of woven bone in a fibrous stroma.

Which of the following classically distinguishes this lesion from normal woven bone formation?

. Presence of Birbeck granules
. Prominent osteoblastic rimming
. Absence of osteoblastic rimming
. Cartilaginous cap formation
. Abundant multinucleated giant cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Absence of osteoblastic rimming


Explanation

Fibrous dysplasia is histologically characterized by irregular trabeculae of woven bone (Chinese character shape) situated in a fibrous stroma. Notably, these bony trabeculae characteristically lack osteoblastic rimming.

Question 498

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 6-year-old boy presents with back pain and a mild kyphotic deformity. Radiographs demonstrate complete collapse of the T8 vertebral body (vertebra plana) with preservation of the adjacent disc spaces. A biopsy is performed. Which of the following markers will be strongly expressed in the lesional cells?

. Cytokeratin
. S-100 and CD1a
. CD99
. RANKL
. Vimentin only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. S-100 and CD1a


Explanation

Vertebra plana in a young child is classically caused by Eosinophilic Granuloma (Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis). The Langerhans cells characteristically stain positive for S-100 and CD1a, and contain Birbeck granules on electron microscopy.

Question 499

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 9-year-old boy presents with an isolated expansile, 'ground-glass' lytic lesion in the proximal femur causing a progressive deformity. If histological analysis is performed, what is the classic hallmark finding?

. Sheets of atypical chondrocytes with binucleation
. Woven bone trabeculae lacking osteoblastic rimming within a fibrous stroma
. Trabeculae of bone with prominent, organized osteoblastic rimming
. Spindle cells arranged in a storiform pattern with multinucleated giant cells
. Nests of epithelial cells staining positive for cytokeratin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Woven bone trabeculae lacking osteoblastic rimming within a fibrous stroma


Explanation

The classic histological appearance of fibrous dysplasia is irregular, 'Chinese character' trabeculae of woven bone that conspicuously lack osteoblastic rimming, set in a fibrous stroma.

Question 500

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia. She presents with severe, recalcitrant bone pain in her lower extremities limiting her daily activities. Radiographs show no impending fractures. What is the most appropriate initial medical management?

. Oral corticosteroids
. Intravenous bisphosphonates
. Methotrexate
. Denosumab
. Teriparatide

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravenous bisphosphonates


Explanation

Intravenous bisphosphonates (such as pamidronate or zoledronic acid) are the mainstay of medical treatment for symptomatic bone pain in fibrous dysplasia, functioning by reducing osteoclastic bone turnover.