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Question 3841

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
Which of the following muscles has dual innervation?
. Pronator teres
. Flexor digitorum superficialis
. Coracobrachialis
. Latissimus dorsi
. Brachialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachialis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The brachialis muscle typically receives dual innervation. The major portion is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve. Its inferolateral portion is innervated by the radial nerve. The others listed have single innervation. The anterior approach to the humerus, which requires splitting of the brachialis, capitalizes on this dual innervation. REFERENCE: Mahakkanukrauh P, Somsarp V: Dual innervation of the brachialis muscle. Clin Anat 2002;15:206-209.

Question 3842

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Figure 14 shows a lateral radiograph of a knee joint. The bony structure indicated by the arrow is a sesamoid bone that resides in what tendon?
. Biceps femoris
. Lateral gastrocnemius
. Semimembranosus
. Semitendinosus
. Popliteus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral gastrocnemius


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows a fabella, a sesamoid bone that is usually found within the tendon of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius. It can be confused with a loose body on radiographs. It occurs in 18% of patients and is often bilateral. REFERENCES: Anderson JE (ed): Grant’s Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1978, pp 4-69. Weissman BNW, Sledge CB (ed): Orthopaedic Radiology. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1986, p 514.

Question 3843

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
When counseling a patient with hypophosphatemic rickets, which of the following scenarios will always result in a child with the same disorder?
. Female patient who has a female child
. Female patient who has a male child
. Male patient who has a female child
. Male patient who has a male child
. Disorder not inherited

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Male patient who has a female child


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Hypophosphatemic rickets is an inherited disorder that is transmitted by a unique sex-linked dominant gene. Therefore, if a male patient has a female offspring, his affected X chromosome will be transmitted and all of his female children will have hypophosphatemic rickets. All male offspring of a male patient will be unaffected. All offspring of a female patient have a 50% chance of having the disorder. Understanding the inheritance of hypophosphatemic rickets facilitates early diagnosis and early treatment. Medical treatment with phosphorus and some types of vitamin D (most authors recommend calcitriol) improves, but does not fully correct, the mineralization defect in hypophosphatemic rickets. However, if medical treatment is begun before the child begins walking, the growth plate is then adequately protected and a bowleg deformity will most likely be prevented.

Question 3844

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Tendons should have what ratio of matrix protein?
. 65% collagen type I and 35% proteoglycans
. 80% collagen type I and 20% collagen type VI
. 95% collagen type I and less than 5% collagen type III
. 95% proteoglycans and 5% tenascin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 95% collagen type I and less than 5% collagen type III


Explanation

Tendons consist of mainly type I collagen (95%); a small amount of collagen types III, V, VI; and proteoglycans (< 5%). Proteoglycans have highly charged glycosaminoglycan side chains that attract water and help keep tendons well hydrated. Decorin is the most common proteoglycan in tendons and has been shown to bind to collagen. Tenascin-C is a glycoprotein upregulated in tendinopathy.

Question 3845

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A researcher studies growth factors that have positive effects on cartilage healing. In vivo and in vitro experiments are performed with Growth Factor

. The properties of Growth Factor A include (1) it is the most widely investigated growth factor in cartilage repair, (2) it increases extracellular matrix synthesis in cartilage and mesenchymal stem cells, and (3) it also triggers synovial proliferation and fibrosis. Which of the following is most likely to be Growth Factor A? Review Topic
. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
. Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)
. Transforming growth factor-beta 1 (TGF-beta1)
. Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The properties of Growth Factor A include (1) it is the most widely investigated growth factor in cartilage repair, (2) it increases extracellular matrix synthesis in cartilage and mesenchymal stem cells, and (3) it also triggers synovial proliferation and fibrosis. Which of the following is most likely to be Growth Factor A? Review Topic


Explanation

TGF-beta 1 stimulates the synthesis of extracellular matrix (ECM) and causes synovial proliferation and fibrosis.TGF-beta is the most thoroughly investigated member of the TGF-beta superfamily. This group includes TGF-beta1, BMP-2, and BMP-7. Besides the above activities, TGF-beta1 also stimulates chondrocyte synthetic activity and decreases the catabolic activity of IL-1.Fortier et al. reviewed the role of growth factors in cartilage repair and modificationof osteoarthritis. They found that members of the TGF-beta superfamily, FGF family, IGF1, and PDGF have all been investigated as possible treatment augments in the management of chondral injuries and early arthritis. They concluded that more research was necessary before routine application.Illustration A shows a summary of the different growth factors and their effects on cartilage.Incorrect Answers:

Question 3846

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Which of the following enzymes is used to resorb bone by mature osteoclasts?
. Alkaline phosphatase
. Cathepsin K
. Tissue inhibitor of metalloproteinase (TIMP)
. Osteonectin
. Osteopontin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cathepsin K


Explanation

Osteoclasts resorb bone. Osteoclasts are derived from monocytes and macrophages that fuse to form multinucleated cells in response to receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa B (RANKL) and macrophage colony stimulating factor (MCSF). Osteoclasts attach to bone surfaces through a specific cell attachment receptor called an integrin (avβ3 or vitronectin receptor). The ruffled border refers to multiple invaginations of plasma membrane against the bone matrix surface. Lysosomes move to the ruffled border of osteoclasts and discharge lysosomal enzymes into the resorption region. These enzymes include cathepsin K, matrix metalloproteinase, and carbonic anhydrase (CA II).

Question 3847

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a direct anterior approach for a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon dissects through the superficial internervous plane. Which two nerves supply the muscles that define this specific interval?

. Femoral nerve and inferior gluteal nerve
. Femoral nerve and superior gluteal nerve
. Obturator nerve and superior gluteal nerve
. Sciatic nerve and femoral nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve and inferior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach utilizes a true internervous plane. Superficial dissection occurs between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The deep interval is between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and the gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 3848

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a standard posterior approach to the hip for a THA, the short external rotators are tagged and reflected over the posterior capsule. Which of the following structures is most at risk of iatrogenic injury if a retractor is placed too aggressively deep and posterior to the acetabulum?

. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Inferior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve


Explanation

The sciatic nerve lies posterior to the external rotators. Retractors placed deep and posterior to the acetabulum, especially without the protection of the reflected external rotators, place the sciatic nerve at direct risk of compression or laceration.

Question 3849

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following tendons is found in the same dorsal compartment of the wrist as the posterior interosseous nerve?
. Extensor digiti minimi
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
. Extensor pollicis longus
. Extensor indicis proprius
. Abductor pollicis longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor indicis proprius


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The terminal branch of the posterior interosseous nerve is contained in the fourth dorsal compartment. The contents of the various dorsal wrist compartments are as follows: 1st Compartment: Abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis; 2nd Compartment: Extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi radialis longus; 3rd Compartment: Extensor pollicis longus; 4th Compartment: Extensor digitorum communis, extensor indicis proprius, posterior interosseous nerve; 5th Compartment: Extensor digiti minimi; 6th Compartment: Extensor carpi ulnaris. The extensor indicis proprius is also contained in the fourth dorsal compartment. The extensor digiti minimi is located in the fifth dorsal compartment. The extensor carpi radialis brevis is located in the second dorsal compartment. The extensor pollicis longus is located in the third dorsal compartment, and the abductor pollicis longus is located in the first dorsal compartment. REFERENCES: Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1994, pp 150-151. Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System, Part 1: Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders. West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy Corporation, 1987, vol 8, p 60.

Question 3850

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
What neurovascular structure is most at risk when performing an inside-out repair of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus?
. Popliteal artery
. Peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve
. Sciatic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Saphenous nerve


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The saphenous nerve is located on the posterior medial aspect of the knee and must be protected when performing an inside-out repair of the medial meniscus. The peroneal nerve is most at risk with lateral meniscal repairs. The other structures usually are not at risk with meniscal repair. REFERENCES: Cannon WD Jr, Morgan CD: Meniscal repair: Arthroscopic repair techniques. Instr Course Lect 1994;43:77-96. Scott GA, Jolly BL, Henning CE: Combined posterior incision and arthroscopic intra-articular repair of the meniscus: An examination of factors affecting healing. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:847-861.

Question 3851

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

-Which type of cells has been implicated in the process shown inFigure?

. Monocytes
. Histiocytes
. Leukocytes
. Neutrophils
. Macrophages

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Monocytes


Explanation

Question 3852

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

What term in statistics defines rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact true?

. Type-I error
. Type-II error
. Confounding error
. Variance
. Negative likelihood ratio

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type-I error


Explanation

Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is an example of a type-I error.Type-I errors, to put it simply, detect an effect that is not present. In contrast, a type-II error fails to detect an effect that is present. In simple studies, the rate of a type-I error is denoted by a (alpha). For a 95% confidence level, the value of alpha is 0.05. This means that there is a 5% probability that we will reject a true null hypothesis.Illustration A shows the difference between type-I and type-II errors. Incorrect Answers;not technically considered "errors," but instead are variables that properly constructed studies attempt to avoid. Answer 4: Variance is an estimate of the variability of each individual data point from the mean.

Question 3853

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following findings is a prerequisite for a high tibial valgus osteotomy for medial compartment gonarthrosis?
. Inflammatory arthritis
. Ligamentous instability
. Lateral tibial subluxation
. Preoperative arc of motion of at least 90 degrees
. Narrowing of the lateral compartment cartilaginous joint space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative arc of motion of at least 90 degrees


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The indications for high tibial valgus osteotomy include a physiologically young age, arthritis confined to the medial compartment, 10 to 15 degrees of varus alignment on weight-bearing radiographs, a preoperative arc of motion of at least 90 degrees, flexion contracture of less than 15 degrees, and a motivated, compliant patient. Contraindications include lateral compartment narrowing of the articular cartilage, lateral tibial subluxation of greater than 1 cm, medial compartment bone loss, ligamentous instability, and inflammatory arthritis. REFERENCES: Naudie D, Bourne RB, Rorabeck CH, Bourne TT: The Insall Award: Survivorship of the high tibial valgus osteotomy. A 10- to 22-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1999;367:18-27. Pellicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 255-264.

Question 3854

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
Figure 40 shows the AP radiograph of a 55-year-old man who reports left knee pain. Which of the following conditions is least likely to produce this radiographic presentation?
. Hemochromatosis
. Alkaptonuria
. Wilson’s disease
. Septic arthritis
. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Septic arthritis


Explanation

The radiograph reveals densities within the articular cartilage of the knee commonly referred to as chondrocalcinosis. The term chondrocalcinosis refers to the presence of calcium-containing crystals detected as radiodensities in cartilage. Calcium-containing crystals other than calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate may also deposit in articular cartilage and menisci, producing both radiographically detectable densities in cartilage and joint inflammation or degeneration. Hemochromatosis, alkaptonuria (ochronosis), and Wilson’s disease are characterized by cellular deposition of iron, calcium, and copper ions, respectively, into various tissues including articular cartilage and can give this appearance. Septic arthritis does not usually cause chondrocalcinosis.

Question 3855

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
An adult patient has a closed humeral fracture that was treated nonsurgically and a concomitant radial nerve injury. Six weeks after injury, electromyography shows no evidence of recovery. Management should now consist of:
. exploration and neurolysis/repair.
. MRI of the arm.
. functional electrical stimulation.
. radial nerve tendon transfers.
. observation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. observation.


Explanation

In patients with radial nerve injuries with closed humeral fractures, it has been reported that 85% to 95% spontaneously recover. Based on this premise, most surgeons favor expectant management of these injuries. Even if there is no evidence of recovery at 6 weeks, repeat electromyography at 12 weeks is advocated. If there are no clinical or electromyographic signs of recovery at 6 months, exploration is recommended.

Question 3856

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Communication breakdown is the leading cause of which of the following?

. Delayed diagnoses
. Medication errors
. Surgical site infections
. 1 and 2
. All of the above

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Delayed diagnoses


Explanation

Communication failures are the leading cause of wrong side surgeries, medication errors and diagnostic delays.Poor communication sets up environments in which medical errors can take place. Per the Joint Commission, medical errors may be the among the top 10 causes of death in the United States. Establishing open lines of communication is critical to reduce the risk of error and enhance patient safety.Gandhi et al. designed a framework to study missed or delayed diagnoses and their causes. The most significant factors contributing to errors were poor handoffs, failures in judgment, failures in memory and failures in knowledge.O’Daniel et al. review the importance of professional communication and collaborative team efforts. They note that patient safety is at risk when poor communication is in place. The leading cause for medication errors, treatment delays and wrong-site surgeries is communication failure.Illustration A shows the leading causes of death in the United States. This includes “preventable errors” as a cause.Incorrect Answers:

Question 3857

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
  • While under a physician’s care, a 45-year-old man verbally abuses the staff and nurses who are attempting to carry out orders. A decision to discharge the patient is best carried out by
. Asking the legal staff to seek a court injunction
. Copying the patient’s chart and giving it to him as he leaves
. Having the patient sign a written legal contract that specifies acceptable behavior
. Continuing care of the patient until an appropriate referral can be arranged
. Transferring the patient to another orthopaedic surgeon without disclosing the realreason for why the patient is being transferred

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Asking the legal staff to seek a court injunction


Explanation

The other foils in this answer would be both unethical and would be a violation of “anti-dumping” laws. This would further open the physician, hospital and staff to possible litigation.

Question 3858

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which characteristic of complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) type 2 differentiates it from CRPS 1?
. Positive bone scan result
. Identified nerve injury
. Pseudomotor changes
. No identified nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Identified nerve injury


Explanation

EXPLANATION: CRPS 2 develops after nerve injury, whereas CRPS 1 occurs without nerve injury. The diagnostic criteria are otherwise the same for the 2 conditions. A 3-phase bone scan can be helpful; a pattern of increased uptake in all 3 phases, and particularly diffuse periarticular uptake in and around the joints of the affected extremity during the delayed phase, is considered typical of CRPS, especially during the first 6 months; however, it is not specific enough to be used as a diagnostic criteria. Unfortunately, the pathophysiological mechanisms underlying CRPS remain unclear, and, as such, no standard diagnostic test for CRPS exists. There are 3 major sets of diagnostic criteria for CRPS: the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) criteria, the Budapest Research Criteria, and the Veldman criteria. According to IASP, CRPS type 1 involves an initiating noxious event or a cause of immobilization; continuing pain/allodynia/hyperalgesia for which the pain is disproportionate to any known inciting event; evidence of edema, changes in skin blood flow, or abnormal pseudomotor activity in the region of pain; and exclusion of the diagnosis by the existence of other conditions that would otherwise account for the degree of pain and dysfunction. CRPS type 2 is a syndrome that develops after nerve injury, contends IASP. Spontaneous pain or allodynia/hyperalgesia occurs and is not necessarily limited to the territory of the injured nerve; there is or has been evidence of edema, a skin blood flow abnormality, or abnormal sudomotor activity in the region of pain since the inciting event; and the diagnosis is excluded by the existence of conditions that would otherwise account for the degree of pain and dysfunction.

Question 3859

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 16-year-old girl sustains the closed injury shown in Figure 1. On physical examination, she is found to have a complete radial nerve palsy. Her fracture is treated nonsurgically, and her nerve palsy is followed clinically for improvement. What muscle is most likely to improve last as her nerve recovers?

. Brachioradialis (BR)
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB)
. Extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU)
. Extensor indicis proprius (EIP)The incidence of radial nerve palsy after a humeral shaft fracture has been estimated as being between 7% and 22%. Controversy remains regarding the need for early exploration in a patient presenting with a closed humerus fracture and concurrent radial nerve palsy, because approximately 77% of patients treated without explorationhave spontaneous recovery of radial nerve function. Within 3 to 4 months of the injury, the BR and extensor carpi radialis longus (ECRL) should begin to show signs of reinnervation. Anatomic studies have demonstrated a relatively consistent order of the radial nerve motor branches in the forearm (proximal to distal): BR, ECRL, supinator, ECRB, extensor digitorum communis, ECU, extensor digit quinti, abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and EIP. Because the EIP is the last motor branch from the radial nerve, it is likely to be the last to recover following a high radial nerve palsy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachioradialis (BR)


Explanation

A 35-year-old man reports ulnar sided wrist pain. Radiographs show ulnar positive variance with cystic changes in the ulnar head and lunate. His body mass index (BMI) is 22, and he has had a 1.5-pack-per-day smoking history for the past 10 years. He undergoes an oblique ulnar shortening osteotomy with volar placement of the plate. Nine months after surgery, he reports continued pain, and radiographs reveal a nonunion. Of the factors cited for this patient, which has been shown to most likely increase the risk of nonunion?

Question 3860

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
  • When taken concomitantly with which of the following, erythromycin can cause an increase in the blood level of
. digoxin
. sucralfate
. clindamycin
. alcohol
. neuromuscular blocking agents

Correct Answer & Explanation

. digoxin


Explanation

When erythromycin is taken concomitantly with digoxin, carbamazapine, cyclosporine, oral anticoagulants and theophylline, it can increase their blood levels. Erythromycin has no significant effect in the blood levels of the other listed agents. (Clindamycin enhances neuromuscular blocking effects and amphoterecin B may cause digoxin toxicity.)