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Question 3701

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 62-year-old woman with a bone mass density (BMD) T-score of -2.0 sustained a subcapital fracture of her hip. She is an avid tennis player, and history reveals no previous fractures. What is the most appropriate follow-up care?
. Antiresorptive bisphosphonate medication
. A repeat dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scan (DEXA) and treatment if the T-score is less than -2.5
. A repeat DEXA scan and treatment if the T-score is greater than -1.5
. No treatment since the BMD is not in osteoporotic range
. Teriparatide followed by surgery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Antiresorptive bisphosphonate medication


Explanation

A DEXA scan is most appropriately used to establish a baseline score. Even if the bone mineral density is not within the osteoporotic range (T-score less than -2.5), a prior fragility fracture is a strong risk factor for a second fracture. The guidelines of the National Osteoporosis Foundation indicate that, following a fragility hip fracture, active anti-osteoporotic medication should be initiated, whether or not a DEXA scan is performed.

Question 3702

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
An 80-year-old African American woman who lives in a large city is scheduled for total hip arthroplasty to address primary osteoarthritis. Part of the presurgical protocol includes nasal swab screening to assess for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) colonization. Which demographic factor places this patient at highest risk for a positive result?
. Gender
. Age
. Race
. Environment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Race


Explanation

Demographic factors are associated with increased risk for MRSA colonization, so it is important to identify vulnerable patients. Female gender and advanced age reduce the risk for colonization, whereas African American race increases this risk. Urban environments do not influence MRSA colonization.

Question 3703

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Cell signaling through the activation of a transmembrane receptor complex formed by serine/threonine kinase receptors occurs with which of the following growth factors?
. Bone morphogenetic protein
. Fibroblast growth factors
. Insulin-like growth factors
. Platelet-derived growth factors
. Growth hormone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone morphogenetic protein


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Cell activation and transcription varies with the target cell, the growth factor-receptor combination, and the biologic state of the cell. The growth factors in the transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-β) superfamily signal through serine/threonine kinase receptors. Fibroblast growth factors, insulin-like growth factors, and platelet-derived growth factors signal through tyrosine kinase receptors. Growth hormone is released by the pituitary and circulates to the liver where target cells are stimulated to release insulin-like growth factor. REFERENCES: Lieberman J, Daluiski A, Einhorn TA: The role of growth factors in the repair of bone: Biology and clinical applications. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1032-1044. Schmitt JM, Hwang K, Winn SR, et al: Bone morphogenetic proteins: An update on basic biology and clinical relevance. J Orthop Res 1999;17:269-278.

Question 3704

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 31-year-old man sustained an unstable closed left posterior hip dislocation in a motorcycle accident. A postreduction radiograph is shown in Figure 51a. 3-D CT scans are shown in Figures 51b and 51c. What is the optimal surgical approach that will allow for the most appropriate treatment?

. Surgical hip dislocation (“Berne” approach)
. Watson-Jones approach
. Smith-Peterson approach
. Kocher-Langenbeck approach
. Extensile iliofemoral approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical hip dislocation (“Berne” approach)


Explanation

The radiograph and CT scans show a posterior wall acetabular fracture with an associated femoral head fracture. As is the case in most of these injuries, the femoral head fracture is located on the anterior aspect of the femoral head. Surgical dislocation with a trochanteric flip osteotomy as described by Solberg and associates and Henle and associates allows for exposure and treatment of the posterior wall fracture as well as surgical dislocation for treatment of the femoral head fracture. A Smith-Peterson approach or Watson-Jones approach would allow for anterior exposure and may help to address the femoral head fracture, but not the posterior wall fracture. A Kocher-Langenbach approach would allow exposure of the posterior wall fracture, but not the femoral head fracture. An extensile iliofemoral approach is unnecessary for this injury pattern.

Question 3705

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Vitamin D?

. 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol is the best laboratory study to determine a Vitamin D deficiency
. hydroxycholecalciferol is the active form of Vitamin D
. 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is an inactive form of Vitamin D
. 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol is converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney
. The half-life of 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol is longer than 25-hydroxycholecalciferol

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol is the best laboratory study to determine a Vitamin D deficiency


Explanation

24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in an inactive form of Vitamin D. High levels of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D stimulate the enzymatic production of 24,25-dihydroxyvitamin D, the inactive form of vitamin D, thereby self-regulating the action of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D.Vitamin D is paramount to proper calcium homeostasis and has important clinical implications in the orthopaedic patient. Vitamin D3 is synthesized in the skin and is converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is then converted in the kidney into 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, the active form of vitaminD. The best test to determine Vitamin D deficiency is the measurement of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol, as it has a longer half-life and circulating levels are 1,000x more than 1,25-dihydrocholecalciferol.Patton et al. review the importance of Vitamin D in the orthopaedic patient. They discuss the implications of Vitamin D deficiency, and urge orthopaedic surgeons to be proficient in both the diagnosis and treatment of the condition.Bogunovic et al. measured the levels of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in 723 patients who were to undergo orthopaedic surgery. 40% of these patients were noted to be deficient in Vitamin D, with the highest rates in patients scheduled to undergo trauma and sports surgery.Illustration A reviews Vitamin D metabolism. 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is referred to as pre-Vitamin D.Incorrect Answers:

Question 3706

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Which of the following changes of calcium metabolism accompany the loss of bone during menopause?
. Negative changes in external calcium balance with a decrease in intestinal calcium absorption and an increase in urinary calcium loss
. A net negative change in calcium balance because of a decrease in intestinal absorption and a lesser decrease in urinary calcium loss
. An increase of intestinal resorption with an increase of free 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
. Loss of estrogen stimulating loss of calcium via increased PTH levels and subsequent decreased renal tubular absorption of calcium
. No true change in calcium metabolism, but rather a net increased turnover of bone because of a decrease in circulating estrogen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Negative changes in external calcium balance with a decrease in intestinal calcium absorption and an increase in urinary calcium loss


Explanation

DISCUSSION: There is a negative change of calcium balance with a decrease in intestinal absorption and an increase in urinary calcium loss. The reduction of intestinal absorption is accompanied by reduced circulating concentrations of total, but not free 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D. However, estrogen may also directly regulate intestinal calcium resorption independent of vitamin D. Tubular resorption of calcium is higher in the presence of estrogen. Studies of the levels of PTH in the presence of estrogen are controversial. REFERENCES: Oh KW, Rhee EJ, Lee WY, et al: The relationship between circulating osteoprotegerin levels and bone mineral metabolism in healthy women. Clin Endocrinol (Oxf) 2004;61:244-249. Reid IR: Menopause, in Favus MJ (ed): Primer on Metabolic Bone Diseases and Disorders of Mineral Metabolism, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 1999, pp 55-57.

Question 3707

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Which of the following is most likely to decrease surgical mortality and inpatient morbidity while simultaneously increasing surgical team adherence to life-saving steps in operating room crisis situations?

. An intra-operative surgical team leader
. A surgical checklist
. The presence of a senior surgeon
. Magnet certification of nursing staff
. Exclusion of surgical residents from the operating room team

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An intra-operative surgical team leader


Explanation

The utilization of a surgical safety checklist has demonstrated substantial reductions in surgical morbidity and mortality. Checklist use has also demonstrated efficacy in increasing team adherence to life-saving care plans in operating room crises.The World Health Organization concept of a surgical safety checklist concept was validated in 2009 as a way of improving surgical outcomes. Successful implementation of a surgical checklist relies upon surgeon leadership to educate staff on its rationale and the practical components of implementation in the operating room.Haynes et al. evaluated a 19-item surgical safety checklist and evaluated its ability to reduce complications and deaths associated with surgery in a global population. Across 8 diverse hospitals in 8 cities around the world, their study demonstrated that implementation of a pre-surgical checklist resulted in a 50% reduction in mortality (1.5% to 0.8%) and a 37% reduction in inpatient complications (11% to 7%). The patients in the study were over the age of 16 and undergoing non-cardiac surgery.Conley et al. evaluated the effectiveness of implementation of surgical safety checklists in five hospitals using a series of interviews conducted with surgeons. Analysis of the survey results demonstrated that effective implementation relied upon surgeon leadership to explain the necessity of the checklist and how to effectively implement its use. When surgeon leadership failed in these functions, hospital staff failed to comprehend the utility of the checklist and were not able to appropriately use it. These failures eventually led to institutional abandonment of the safety checklist.Arriaga et al. evaluated the utility of checklists to guide the surgical team through intraoperative crisis situations (e.g., massive hemorrhage, cardiac arrest). Their study of 17 surgical teams undergoing 106 simulated surgical-crises demonstrated that use of a crisis checklist led to greater adherence to life-saving steps of a care plan. 97% of participants agreed that they desired a checklist to be present if a crisis were to occur while they themselves were undergoing surgery.Incorrect answers:

Question 3708

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
What muscle is most often encountered during surgical approaches to C5-6?
. Omohyoid
. Cricohyoid
. Splenius capitus
. Thyrohyoid
. Posterior digastric

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Omohyoid


Explanation

The omohyoid muscle crosses the surgical field from inferior lateral to anterior superior traveling from the scapula to the hyoid bone and may need to be transected. The posterior digastric crosses the field as well but higher near C3-4. The other muscles run longitudinally.

Question 3709

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 45 year-old woman who has not reached menopause yet falls from a standing height and sustains a distal radius fracture. A DEXA scan reveals a T-score of -2.2. Which of the following treatments is indicated in this patient?

. 1,700 mg of calcium
. 1,200 mg of calcium
. 1,700 mg of vitamin D
. 1,200 mg of iron
. 1,700 mg of PTH

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1,700 mg of calcium


Explanation

The current recommendations for further prevention of any fragility fracture include 1200-1500mg of elemental calcium intake per day and 400-800 IU of vitamin D per day. Of note, these doses are indicated only for prevention and not sufficient for active treatment of osteoporosis (T score less than -2.5).Medications that are approved by the FDA for active treatment of osteoporosis: alendronate, risedronate, raloxifene, estrogen, calcitonin. These medications and preventative measures help to reduce fragility fractures by as much as 50%.Freedman et al. performed a retrospective study that looked at a cohort of patients with fragility fractures and then looked at the type and frequency of osteoporosis related interventions. They found that only 60% of patients actually were either prescribed a medication, given a referral, or ordered additional workup (DEXA scan).Schulman et al. reviewed a series of 80 female patients regarding osteoporosis and bone health, and found that the outpatient sports medicine office setting was an excellent opportunity to educate patients on these topics. The patients' post-education test scores increased significantly after a brief counseling session, and increases in daily calcium intake and exercise levels were also seen.

Question 3710

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

What is the most common cause of errors that harm patients? Review Topic

. Communication breakdown
. Equipment breakdown
. Nursing competence
. Patient noncompliance
. Physician competence

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Communication breakdown


Explanation

The AMA report identified communication breakdown as the most common cause of errors that harm patients. It is extremely important to learn to communicate effectively with your patients. Understanding cultural and language differences helps avoid communication errors.

Question 3711

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

03 Which of the following is considered a normal age-related change in the intervertebral disk in the elderly?

. increased proteoglycan concentration
. increased biosynthetic function
. increased viable cell concentration in the central region
. decreased water content 5) decreased stiffnessback   answerQuestion 40.03

Correct Answer & Explanation

. increased proteoglycan concentration


Explanation

Remember 2 things Dr. Brinker has said about collagen:“collagen dehydrates when it gets older” “water follows the proteoglycans”We all know that as we get older our collagen is less pliable and, specifically, our disks shrink, bulge, and are stiffer. They’re smaller and stiffer because there’s less water. There’s less water because there’s less proteoglycans. There’s less proteoglycans because there’s less biosynthetic function. There’s less biosynthetic function because there are fewer viable cells. Why are there fewer viable cells? I don’t know. Neither do the authors of the Academy Basic Science Textbook. Presumably one day we’ll find the gene(s) / protein(s) / cue(s) that are responsible for the overall slow, programmed decline of our bodies that we call “aging.”[1]back to this question next question[1]Orthopaedic Basic Science 2nd ed. Pg 558

Question 3712

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
A 42-year-old man reports the recent onset of right hip pain. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 38a and 38b. A WBC count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and hip aspiration are within normal limits. Management should now consist of
. core decompression.
. biopsy of the femoral head.
. protected weight bearing and observation.
. total hip arthroplasty.
. percutaneous cannulated pin fixation of the femoral neck.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. protected weight bearing and observation.


Explanation

Transient osteoporosis of the hip is an uncommon problem, usually affecting women in the last trimester of pregnancy and middle-aged men. Symptoms include pain in the involved hip with temporary osteopenia; however, there is no joint space involvement. In this patient, the imaging findings are consistent with transient osteoporosis. Short TR/TE (repetition time/echo time) images reveal diffusely decreased signal intensity in the femoral head and intracapsular region of the femoral neck. Increased signal intensity is seen with increased T2-weighting. Within a few months, the pain, as well as the imaging findings, will completely resolve without intervention. Distinguishing the diffuse features of transient osteoporosis of the hip from the segmental findings of osteonecrosis is essential. Unlike transient osteoporosis of the hip, osteonecrosis will have a double-density signal on MRI and may progress radiographically. Surgical intervention and oral corticosteroids are not indicated for treatment. Protected weight bearing until the pain resolves may decrease symptoms while the transient osteoporosis resolves.

Question 3713

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
An 18-year-old man has acute respiratory distress after sustaining injuries in a motorcycle accident. He has a blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 110/min. Examination reveals chest tympany to percussion, distended neck veins, and deviation of the trachea away from his right hemithorax where the breath sounds are diminished. Heart sounds are regular and normal on auscultation. Initial management should consist of
. administration of 2 L of saline solution.
. subxiphoid pericardial aspiration.
. rapid infusion of 500 mL of colloid solution.
. insertion of a large-bore needle in the right third or fourth intercostal space.
. intubation followed by mechanical ventilation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. insertion of a large-bore needle in the right third or fourth intercostal space.


Explanation

Tension pneumothorax occurs when air trapped in the pleural space between the lung and chest wall achieves sufficient pressure to compress the lungs and shift the mediastinum. Urgent needle decompression of the pleural space air followed by definitive chest tube placement is the treatment of choice.

Question 3714

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
Biofilm is believed to play a major role in the pathogenesis of periprosthetic joint infection. Biofilm allows for the bacterial population to evade the effects of antimicrobial therapy primarily through
. adherence and colonization.
. formation of a protective scaffold.
. coating with host proteins.
. direct inhibition of antibiotics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. formation of a protective scaffold.


Explanation

The intrinsic risk for colonization and subsequent infection associated with implants is exacerbated by implants’ tendency to become coated in host proteins such as fibrinogen and fibronectin shortly after implantation. Following initial adherence and colonization, bacteria are thought to form a complex matrix of an extracellular polymeric substance, serving as a protective scaffold in which they can survive despite the competence of the host’s immune system or the presence of antimicrobial agents. There is no evidence that biofilm directly inhibits antibiotics.

Question 3715

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
At the level of the midcalf, the plantaris tendon is found at which of the following locations?
. Superficial to the fascia of the gastrocnemius
. Between the medial and lateral heads of the gastrocnemius
. Between the soleus and lateral head of the gastrocnemius
. Between the soleus and medial head of the gastrocnemius
. Between the soleus and posterior tibialis muscle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the soleus and medial head of the gastrocnemius


Explanation

The plantaris tendon is often harvested to augment a tendon reconstruction. The origin of the plantaris muscle is on the posterolateral aspect of the distal femur, and the muscle lies lateral to the tibial nerve and the posterior tibial artery. The tendon then courses posteriorly between the soleus and the medial head of the gastrocnemius.

Question 3716

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Figure 40 shows the plain radiograph of a 30-year-old woman who has had a long history of standing bilateral anterior knee pain and a sense of patellar instability without frank dislocation. Nonsurgical management consisting of anti-inflammatory drugs and physical therapy has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals full range of motion of both knees, with moderate patellofemoral crepitance. Patellar apprehension and patellar grind tests are positive. The Q-angle measures 20°. Management should now consist of
. bilateral arthroscopic lateral releases.
. bilateral arthroscopic lateral releases and medial retinacular thermal shrinkage.
. bilateral lateral releases and anteromedialization of the tibial tubercles.
. physical therapy and the use of patella-stabilizing braces.
. physical therapy with taping.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. bilateral lateral releases and anteromedialization of the tibial tubercles.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The history, physical examination, and radiographs indicate that the patellofemoral pain is most likely caused by excessive lateral patellar pressure and patellar maltracking. Because the radiographs reveal the lateral tilt of the patella and lateral subluxation, the treatment of choice is bilateral lateral releases with anteromedialization of the tibial tubercles. This procedure corrects not only the excessive lateral patellar pressure, but also the lateral subluxation. The use of patella-stabilizing braces or taping may provide temporary relief, but these implements are not well-tolerated and they will not change the underlying biomechanics of the knee. Simple lateral release is indicated for isolated lateral tilt, but it does not correct the lateral subluxation. The use of thermal capsular shrinkage for the medial retinaculum has not been proven to provide long-term correction of the deformity.

Question 3717

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following nerves is most commonly injured when obtaining a bone graft from the posterior ilium?
. Lateral femoral cutaneous
. Superior gluteal
. Cluneal
. L5 nerve root
. S1 nerve root

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cluneal


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Cutaneous sensation to the buttock is provided by the superior, middle, and inferior cluneal nerves. The superior cluneal nerves are the lateral branches of the dorsal rami of the upper three lumbar nerves and penetrate deep fascia just proximal to the iliac crest. They pass distally to the skin of the buttock and will be injured if the exposure extends more than 8 cm anterolateral to the posterior superior iliac spine. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve can be injured in an anterior ilium bone graft. The superior gluteal nerve or even the sciatic nerve can be injured if bone is removed from the sciatic notch or dissection is not kept subperiosteal; however, the rate of injury is far less than cluneal nerve injury. The L5 and S1 nerve roots are anterior and can be injured if the inner table bone is harvested and the dissection is not kept subperiosteal or is too medial; however, the rate of injury still is far less than cluneal nerve injury.

Question 3718

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
During total hip arthroplasty, which characteristic of irradiated (10 Mrad) and subsequently melted highly cross-linked polyethylene should provide a more wear-resistant construct than traditional gamma-irradiated (2.5-4 Mrad)-in-air polyethylene mated with the same head?
. Resistance to adhesive wear
. Resistance to abrasive wear
. Resistance to fatigue wear
. Resistance to creep

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resistance to adhesive wear


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Highly cross-linked polyethylene makes material resistant to adhesive wear. Abrasive wear from third bodies does not decrease wear. The fatigue strength of this material is inferior to traditional polyethylene, and its resistance to creep is the same, if not lower, than that of traditional polyethylene.

Question 3719

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 2-year-old child refused to walk 3 days prior to being seen because of pain in the left hip. The pain has gradually subsided and the child is now walking. He is afebrile and has full motion of the hips. Laboratory studies show a normal CBC with differential and C-reactive protein. An ultrasound shows a joint effusion in the right hip. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Juvenile inflammatory arthritis
. Septic arthritis
. Osteomyelitis of the femur
. Leukemia
. Toxic synovitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Toxic synovitis


Explanation

The most likely diagnosis is toxic synovitis, and the normal C-reactive protein supports that diagnosis. Juvenile inflammatory arthritis is extremely rare to present with hip involvement. The child most likely does not have a bacterial infection because he has improved rapidly without treatment. A normal CBC with differential precludes the diagnosis of leukemia.

Question 3720

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Figure 19 shows the current radiograph of a 48-year-old man who reports hip pain and marked difficulty walking after undergoing revision of a failed total hip replacement 2 years ago. What is the mechanism of failure?
. Fatigue
. Crevice corrosion
. Galvanic corrosion
. Loosening
. Wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fatigue


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Fatigue from repetitive loading of the stem with the distal aspect well-fixed resulted in stem failure. If the stem had loosened, it would not have broken. Crevice corrosion occurs at a taper interface; galvanic corrosion occurs at the junction of two metals of differing electrochemical potentials, not along a uniform portion of the implant. REFERENCES: Simon SR (ed): Orthopaedic Basic Science. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 449-486. Gruen TA, McNiece GM, Amstutz HC: “Modes of Failure” of cemented stem-type femoral components: A radiologic analysis of loosening. Clin Orthop 1979;141:17-27.