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Question 3521

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Clinical evidence suggests that grafts for replacing a torn anterior cruciate ligament often stretch after surgery. What is the most probable mechanism for this behavior?
. Gross failure at the attachment sites
. Fatigue failure of the ligament tissue
. Creep of the graft material
. Water absorption by the graft material
. Elastic stretch of collagen fibers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Creep of the graft material


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The stretching of the graft occurs over time as the graft is loaded. Time-dependent deformation under load is called creep and is common in viscoelastic materials such as ligament tissue. Creep can occur under both static and cyclic load conditions; time-dependent deformation will occur as long as load is applied to the tissue. Similarly, when a graft is initially tensioned to a given deformation at surgery, the load generated in the graft will decrease over time; this behavior is called stress relaxation and also is indicative of a viscoelastic material.

Question 3522

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
On MRI, a nonsanguinous effusion has what appearance?
. White (high-signal intensity) on T1- and T2-weighted images
. White on T1-weighted images and black (low-signal intensity) on T2-weighted images
. Black on T1- and T2-weighted images
. Black on T1-weighted images and white on T2-weighted images
. Gray (intermediate-signal intensity) on T1-weighted images and white on T2-weighted images

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Black on T1-weighted images and white on T2-weighted images


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Nonbloody effusions that are greater than 1 mL are readily detected by MRI. They appear black on T1-weighted images and white on T2-weighted images. A sanguinous effusion is seen as white on T1-weighted images and black on T2-weighted images.

Question 3523

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
An otherwise healthy 15-year-old wrestler has a 6-cm cutaneous lesion on the posterior aspect of his right elbow that he reports as a spider bite. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Psoriasis
. Tinea corporis
. Herpes simplex virus
. Community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA)


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Patients who have skin and soft-tissue infections caused by CA-MRSA often describe the lesion as a spider bite. The cytotoxin Panton-Valentine leukocidin that is produced by many strains of CA-MRSA causes tissue necrosis, resulting in rapid development of an abscess and the appearance of a spider bite. Patients with psoriasis have thick, red skin with flaky, silver-white patches. Tinea corporis is a general term for a cutaneous fungal infection. The lesion appears as a well-demarcated erythematous plaque with a raised border and central hypopigmentation, giving it a ring-like appearance. Primary infection with herpes simplex virus can produce constitutional symptoms with burning, tingling, or stinging at the site. Grouped vesicles with clear fluid 1 to 2 mm in size form on an erythematous base and then rupture, leaving moist ulcers or crusted plaques.

Question 3524

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 24-year-old male wrestler who underwent surgery for recurrent shoulder dislocations using coracoid autograft. At his first postoperative visit, the patient complains of decreased sensation on the lateral aspect of his forearm. The patientโ€™s symptoms are most likely due to injury of the

. axillary nerve.
. musculocutaneous nerve.
. median nerve.
. radial nerve.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. musculocutaneous nerve.


Explanation

The patient has undergone a Latarjet procedure as shown in the radiographs. After harvesting the coracoid graft, care must be taken to not place too much tension on or dissect excessively near the musculocutaneous nerve. The nerve is encountered 5 cm distal to the coracoid as it enters the conjoint tendon. The lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve is the terminal branch of the musculocutaneous nerve and; therefore, injury can cause decreased sensation in the lateral forearm.

Question 3525

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing
Nutritional rickets is associated with which of the following changes in chemical blood level?
. Low Vitamin D levels
. High to normal calcium levels
. High phosphate levels
. Decreased PTH
. Decreased alkaline phosphatase levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Low Vitamin D levels


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Nutritional rickets is associated with decreased dietary intake of Vitamin D, resulting in low levels of Vitamin D that result in decreased intestinal absorption of calcium and low to normal serologic levels of calcium. To boost serum calcium levels, there is a compensatory increase in PTH and bone resorption, leading to increased alkaline phosphatase levels. REFERENCES: Brinker MR: Cellular and molecular biology, immunology, and genetics in orthopaedics, in Miller MD (ed): Review of Orthopaedics, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2001, pp 81-94. Pettifor J: Nutritional and drug-induced rickets and osteomalacia, in Farrus MJ (ed): Primer on the Metabolic Bone Diseases and Disorders of Mineral Metabolism, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2003, pp 399-466. Einhorn TA: Metabolic bone disease, in Einhorn TA, O'Keefe RJ, Buckwalter JA (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science: Foundations of Clinical Practice, ed 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, in press.

Question 3526

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
An open biopsy specimen of a radiodense distal clavicle lesion in a 12-year-old girl shows chronic polyclonal inflammatory cells without granuloma formation. Laboratory studies show that bacterial, fungal, and acid-fast bacillus cultures are negative. Subsequently, a similar lesion is noted in the fibula. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
. antiviral therapy.
. IV broad-spectrum antibiotics.
. partial claviculectomy and fibulectomy.
. symptomatic relief with anti-inflammatory drugs.
. bone marrow aspiration and biopsy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. symptomatic relief with anti-inflammatory drugs.


Explanation

The most likely diagnosis is chronic multifocal osteomyelitis. This is a culture-negative polyostotic disease that is most commonly found in young people. The treatment of choice is anti-inflammatory drugs. The pathology does not suggest eosinophilic granuloma. Antiviral therapy, broad-spectrum antibiotics, and surgical resection are not indicated for this disease.

Question 3527

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
In total knee arthroplasty, in vitro testing has shown that cross-linking can diminish the rate of polyethylene wear by 30% to 80%. What other change in material properties is possible when polyethylene is highly cross-linked?
. Increased ductility
. Increased wettability
. Diminished fatigue strength
. Decreased resistance to abrasive wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diminished fatigue strength


Explanation

The most important concern regarding highly cross-linked polyethylene relates to decreased mechanical properties. Cross-linking results in reduced ductility, tensile strength, and fatigue crack propagation resistance. These problems have not been shown to cause implant failure in the most recent clinical trials, but they remain the most important mechanical issues associated with current material processing methods.

Question 3528

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Examination of a 12-year-old girl with bilateral anterior knee pain reveals excessive femoral anteversion and excessive external tibial torsion. The patient has no patellofemoral instability. Nonsurgical management consisting of muscle strengthening and nonsteroidal medication has failed to relieve the patientโ€™s pain. Treatment should now consist of
. corrective osteotomies with internal rotation of the distal part of the tibia and/or external rotation of the femur.
. external rotation of the distal part of the tibia.
. internal rotation of the distal part of the femur.
. arthroscopic retinacular release.
. a patellar realignment procedure.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. corrective osteotomies with internal rotation of the distal part of the tibia and/or external rotation of the femur.


Explanation

Children with symptomatic severe torsional malalignment of the lower extremity and patellofemoral pathology show excessive femoral anteversion and external tibial torsion on physical examination and analysis of gait. The functional effect of this torsional malalignment is centered about the knee joint. If nonsurgical management fails to alleviate patellofemoral pain, definitive surgical treatment should consist of corrective osteotomies, including internal rotation of the distal part of the tibia or external rotation of the femur, or both. Patients with surgical correction by osteotomy show an improved gait pattern and appearance of the extremity and a marked decrease in knee pain.

Question 3529

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

The difference between vitamin D-dependent rickets type I (VDDR I) and vitamin D-dependent rickets type II (VDDR II) is

. VDDR I is caused by an inactivating mutation of the receptor for 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D3. VDDR II is a deficiency of an enzyme predominantly found in the kidney.
. VDDR I is caused by an activating mutation of the receptor for 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D3. VDDR II is a deficiency of an enzyme predominantly found in the kidney.
. VDDR I is a deficiency of an enzyme predominantly found in the kidney. VDDR II is caused by an inactivating mutation of the receptor for 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D3.
. VDDR I is a deficiency of an enzyme predominantly found in the kidney. VDDR II is caused by an activating mutation of the receptor for 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D3.
. VDDR I is a deficiency of an enzyme predominantly found in the liver. VDDR II is caused by an inactivating mutation of the receptor for 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D3.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. VDDR I is a deficiency of an enzyme predominantly found in the kidney. VDDR II is caused by an inactivating mutation of the receptor for 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D3.


Explanation

VDDR I is a deficiency of an enzyme predominantly found in the kidney. VDDR II is caused by an inactivating mutation of the receptor for 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D3.VDDR I is a deficiency of 1a-hydroxylase [converts 25(OH)D to 1a,25(OH)2D3].Lab tests show hypocalcemia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and low or undetectable calcitriol in the presence of adequate 25(OH)D levels. VDDR II or hereditary vitamin D resistant rickets (HVDRR) (autosomal recessive) is an inactivating mutation in the vitamin D receptor (VDR). Lab tests show low serum calcium and phosphate, elevated ALP and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Serum 25(OH)D values are normal and the 1,25(OH)2D levels are elevated (key difference from VDDR I).Malloy et al. reviewed genetic disorders in vitamin D action. They state that VDDR I is an inborn error of vitamin D metabolism coded by the gene CYP27B1. Children with VDDR I present with joint pain/deformity, hypotonia, muscle weakness, growth failure, and hypocalcemic seizures or fractures in early infancy. Treatment is with calcitriol or 1a-hydroxyvitamin D (NOT cholecalciferol). Children with VDDR II present with bone pain, muscle weakness, hypotonia, hypocalcemic convulsions, growth retardation, severe dental caries or teeth hypoplasia. Affected children are resistant to therapy and supra-physiologic doses of all forms of vitamin D.Illustration A shows the differences between VDDR I and VDDR II. Incorrect Answersin the kidney). The liver enzyme vitamin D 25-hydroxylase (found in hepatocytes) is not responsible for VDDR. VDDR II is caused by an inactivating mutation (rather than an activating mutation).

Question 3530

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Patients with which of the following primary carcinomas have the shortest overall survival rate after a solitary metastasis to bone?
. Prostate
. Breast
. Thyroid
. Lung
. Renal cell

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lung


Explanation

The median survival of patients after discovery of bone metastasis from primary lung carcinoma is shorter compared with other primary sites.

Question 3531

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
The pathology of the lesion shown in Figures 1 and 2 reveal what cellular pattern?
. Uniform distribution of stromal cells and giant cells
. Mixture of mature fat cells and spindle cells
. Mucin-filled space with occasional spindled fibroblasts
. Lobular pattern of vascular proliferation with inflammation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Uniform distribution of stromal cells and giant cells


Explanation

EXPLANATION: The question refers to a giant cell tumor of bone, which is characterized by a uniform distribution of mononuclear stromal cells and multinucleated giant cells.

Question 3532

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

A 17-year-old boy is shot in the left side of the neck at the C5-6 level and sustains an incomplete spinal cord injury that is called a Brown-Sequard syndrome. Which of the following best describes the expected deficits? Review Topic

. Profound bilateral wrist extensor, finger flexor, and intrinsic weakness with good preservation of lower extremity motor function
. Severe bilateral upper and lower extremity weakness, pain and temperature sensory deficit but preservation of deep pressure and proprioception
. Weakness of the right upper and lower extremity with diminished pain and temperature sensation on the left side of the body
. Left wrist extensor weakness and numbness along the radial border of the left forearm extending into the thumb and index finger
. Weakness of the left upper and lower extremity with diminished pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the body

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Profound bilateral wrist extensor, finger flexor, and intrinsic weakness with good preservation of lower extremity motor function


Explanation

Brown-Sequard syndrome is an incomplete spinal cord injury that involves damage unilaterally to the cord, most commonly from penetrating trauma. The motors fibers of the cord decussate within the brainstem so the motor deficit is ipsilateral to the injury; whereas, the pain and temperature fibers cross midline immediately on entering the cord so that the sensory deficit is contralateral to the injury. This patient was shot in the left side, thus he would have weakness of the left upper and lower extremity with diminished pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the body. Response 3 describes opposite symptoms that would result from a right-sided injury. Response 1 describes a central syndrome with greater upper than lower extremity involvement. Response 2 is an anterior cord syndrome with only preservation of the posterior columns of the cord. Response 4 describes a C6 root injury.

Question 3533

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Which of the following best describes the relative content of the components of articular cartilage in decreasing order?
. Water, collagen, proteoglycan, noncollagenous protein, chondrocytes
. Water, proteoglycan, collagen, chondrocytes, noncollagenous protein
. Water, noncollagenous protein, collagen, proteoglycan, chondrocytes
. Collagen, noncollagenous protein, proteoglycan, chondrocytes, water
. Collagen, proteoglycan, water, noncollagenous protein, chondrocytes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Water, collagen, proteoglycan, noncollagenous protein, chondrocytes


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Water is the most abundant component of articular cartilage with a wet weight of 65% to 80%. Collagen accounts for 10% to 20% of the wet weight. Proteoglycans comprise 10% to 15% of the wet weight. The remainder of the wet weight is made up of other collagens, noncollagenous proteins, and chondrocytes.

Question 3534

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Figure 59 shows properties of a material being tested for use as an implant. What is represented by the portion of the stress-strain curve from point A to point B?
. Elastic limit
. Nonproportional behavior
. Plastic behavior
. Elastic behavior
. Fracture point

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elastic behavior


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The figure is a stress-strain diagram representing specific metal subjected to increasing tensile stress. The portion of the curve from A to B is a straight line demonstrating a proportional increase in strain for each increase in tensile stress. If the stress is removed at any point between A and C, the material will return to its original shape, returning back along the original curve without permanent deformation. This is termed elastic behavior.

Question 3535

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Which of the following is considered the lowest level that a standard thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) can immobilize?
. L1-2
. L3-4
. L5-S1
. T9-10
. T11-12

Correct Answer & Explanation

. L1-2


Explanation

Without more distal immobilization such as a thigh extension, the lower two lumbar segments generally show the same or even increased mobility with a TLSO.

Question 3536

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 32-year-old man has a closed oblique displaced fracture at the junction of the lower and middle third of the humeral shaft and a complete radial nerve palsy. Closed reduction is performed and is felt to be acceptable. Management of the radial nerve palsy should consist of
. exploration and repair of the radial nerve if clinical findings or electromyographic studies show no improvement at 2 to 3 weeks.
. exploration and repair of the radial nerve if clinical findings or electromyographic studies show no improvement at 14 weeks.
. transfer of the pronator teres to the extensor carpi radialis brevis if clinical findings or electromyographic studies show no improvement at 14 weeks.
. immediate exploration and repair of the radial nerve, along with internal fixation with a plate and screws.
. immediate exploration and repair of the radial nerve, along with internal fixation with an intramedullary nail.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. exploration and repair of the radial nerve if clinical findings or electromyographic studies show no improvement at 14 weeks.


Explanation

In patients who have radial nerve dysfunction associated with a closed humeral fracture, nerve function usually will return to normal without surgical exploration. If clinical findings or electromyographic studies show no improvement at 3 months, surgical exploration and repair can be performed. Tendon transfers are performed if nerve repair is deemed unsuccessful.

Question 3537

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
Figure 48 shows an MRI scan of the knee. The arrow is pointing to what structure?
. Iliotibial bone
. Popliteal tendon
. Biceps femoris
. Peroneal nerve
. Adductor longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps femoris


Explanation

The arrow points to the biceps femoris, which is inserted onto the fibula. The biceps femoris lies at the posterolateral aspect of the thigh. The semimembranosus and the semitendinous lie at the posterior medial aspect of the thigh.

Question 3538

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science
What term best describes the process involved when a growth factor produced by an osteoblast stimulates the differentiation of an adjacent undifferentiated mesenchymal cell during fracture repair?
. Mechanical
. Autocrine
. Paracrine
. Endocrine
. Systemic

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Paracrine


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Growth factors are proteins secreted by cells that can act on target cells to produce certain biologic actions. These actions can be described as autocrine, paracrine, and endocrine. Autocrine actions are those in which the growth factor influences an adjacent cell of its origin or identical phenotype. Paracrine actions are those in which the protein influences an adjacent cell that is different in its origin or phenotype. Endocrine actions are those in which the factor influences a cell located at a distant anatomic site.

Question 3539

Topic: Biomechanics & Biomaterials
Sterilization of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene by gamma irradiation in air will degrade its wear performance because of
. oxidation.
. melting.
. cross-linking.
. corrosion.
. creep.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. oxidation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Gamma irradiation has long been used as a sterilization method for polyethylene. Exposure to gamma irradiation causes breakage of the chemical bonds in the polyethylene, and oxidation will occur if the material is subsequently exposed to air. The amount of oxidation and decrease in wear performance is also related to the length of time that the gamma-irradiated polyethylene is exposed to oxygen.

Question 3540

Topic: Infection, Pharmacology & VTE
A 45-year-old IV drug abuser has sternoclavicular (SC) joint pain for the past 2 weeks. He is afebrile and physical exam findings include point tenderness and swelling. He most likely has septic arthritis of the sternoclavicular joint. If so, what is the most likely infecting organism?
. Streptococcus pneumoniae
. Staphylococcus aureus
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
. Staphylococcus epidermis
. Propionibacterium acnes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Staphylococcus aureus


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Risk factors for sternoclavicular septic arthritis include IV drug abuse, diabetes, and HIV. According to the reference by Ross et al, Staphylococcus aureus accounts for 49% of infections. SC joint arthritis accounts for 1% of septic arthritis in the general population but 17% in the IV drug abuse population. Symptoms include spontaneous swelling with the appearance of joint subluxation and localized pain. These patients are not uncommonly afebrile.