Question 3361
Topic: Biomechanics & BiomaterialsCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Self-passivation
Practice Set 169 of 789
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 1. General Principles & Basic Science. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Self-passivation
. Clostridium septicum
50%
. greater than 50%
. IV antibiotics.
. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
A 72-year-old man was scheduled for left total knee replacement. He has a history of hypertension and deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in his right lower extremity after an ankle fracture 2 years ago that was treated nonsurgically. The patient asked about the recommended types of DVT prophylaxis or investigations. Based on the 2011 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, Preventing Venous Thromboembolic Disease in Patients Undergoing Elective Hip and Knee Arthroplasty , what is an acceptable option?
. Use of pneumatic calf compressors on both lower extremities while in the hospital and 4 weeks of warfarin starting the evening of surgery
. Decreased osteoclast differentiation
A 6-year-old boy is being treated for acute hematogeneous osteomyelitis of the distal femur with intravenous antibiotics. The best method to determine the success or failure of initial treatment is by serial evaluations of which of the following studies? Review Topic
. Radiographs
In the pathogenesis of acute neuroarthropathy (Charcot foot), uncontrolled localized inflammation leads to profound osteolysis and potential midfoot collapse. Which of the following molecular pathways is primarily upregulated, driving the aggressive osteoclastic resorption characteristic of Eichenholtz stage I?
. RANKL/OPG pathway
A 35-year-old male sustains a posterior hip dislocation with an associated Pipkin type II femoral head fracture. Following an urgent closed reduction, a post-reduction CT scan demonstrates a 3 mm step-off of the femoral head fragment without intra-articular loose bodies in the acetabular fossa. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical approach for open reduction and internal fixation of this fracture?
. Smith-Petersen (anterior) approach or surgical hip dislocation
In high-velocity knee dislocations, the popliteal artery is at significant risk of intimal tear or transection due to its rigid tethering within the popliteal fossa. Which of the following strictly defines the proximal and distal anatomic tethering points of the popliteal artery?
. Proximal: Adductor hiatus; Distal: Tendinous arch of the soleus
During an ilioinguinal approach for the internal fixation of an anterior column acetabular fracture, massive hemorrhage occurs upon dissection over the superior pubic ramus, approximately 5 cm lateral to the pubic symphysis. This bleeding is most likely originating from the 'corona mortis'. What two vascular systems does this structure anastomose?
. Internal pudendal artery and the superficial epigastric artery
A 45-year-old patient suffers an acute medial meniscus posterior root tear during a squatting maneuver. Biomechanically, what is the direct consequence of this unaddressed injury to the knee joint?
. Increased anterior tibial translation during the Lachman test
A 68-year-old female on long-term alendronate therapy presents with vague, increasing dull pain in her right thigh. Radiographs reveal focal lateral cortical thickening and a subtle transverse radiolucent line in the subtrochanteric region of the femur. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Immediate cessation of bisphosphonates and non-weight bearing with close observation
A 28-year-old patient sustains a posterior fracture-dislocation of the hip in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. Following closed reduction, neurologic examination reveals an inability to actively dorsiflex the ankle or extend the great toe, while plantar flexion remains fully intact. Which specific nerve structure has been injured?
. Femoral nerve
. Eccentric
. Sympathetic trunk
. Reasonable treatment that exhibits knowledge, skill, diligence, and care
A 78-year-old woman has a history of chronic low back pain. She denies any extremity problems. Her pain is worse in the morning, and gets better, although it does not go away, as the day goes on. An MRI scan of the lumbar spine is shown in Figure 88. She denies any acute worsening of her symptoms, although in general, her symptoms are slowly worsening. She takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs as needed for her pain, but otherwise takes no other medications. What is the next most appropriate step in management? Review Topic

. DEXA scan
A 25-year old right-hand dominant professional baseball pitcher complains of posteromedial right elbow pain that is worsened by throwing. He also reports occasional paresthesias in his small and ring finger after lengthy bullpen sessions. On examination, he is tender along the medial olecranon and complains of pain when extending the elbow >- 20° of extension. He has negative valgus stress, moving valgus stress, and milking maneuver tests. He is stable to varus stress, chair rise, and lateral pivot shift tests. Radiographs reveal a small osteophyte along the posteromedial border of the olecranon. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Valgus extension overload