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Question 221

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

In an MIS TLIF, endplate preparation can be challenging due to the limited visual corridor. Inadequate endplate preparation is most strongly associated with which postoperative complication?

. Epidural hematoma
. Pseudoarthrosis
. Adjacent segment disease
. Cerebrospinal fluid leak
. Early hardware infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pseudoarthrosis


Explanation

Thorough removal of the cartilaginous endplate down to bleeding subchondral bone is essential for fusion. Inadequate preparation due to limited visualization in MIS TLIF leads to non-union (pseudoarthrosis).

Question 222

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

When comparing long-term follow-up (e.g., 2 to 5 years) between patients who underwent MIS TLIF versus Open TLIF, the literature generally shows equivalence in:

. Postoperative length of hospital stay
. Surgeon radiation exposure metrics
. Clinical outcome scores (ODI and VAS) and fusion rates
. Early postoperative opioid consumption
. Immediate postoperative creatine kinase (CK) levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clinical outcome scores (ODI and VAS) and fusion rates


Explanation

While MIS TLIF provides short-term benefits (shorter hospital stay, less immediate pain, lower muscle enzymes), long-term clinical outcomes (ODI, VAS) and fusion rates are statistically equivalent to open TLIF.

Question 223

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

The use of expandable interbody cages in MIS TLIF has gained popularity. A theoretical biomechanical advantage of an expandable cage over a static cage inserted through a small tubular retractor is:

. Lower risk of endplate subsidence in osteoporotic bone
. Ability to insert a device that achieves a larger final footprint and lordosis through a smaller annulotomy
. Complete elimination of the need for supplemental pedicle screws
. Decreased risk of late cage migration
. Reduction in required fluoroscopy time

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ability to insert a device that achieves a larger final footprint and lordosis through a smaller annulotomy


Explanation

Expandable cages can be inserted in a collapsed state through a minimal neural retraction corridor (small annulotomy) and then expanded to provide greater height restoration, lordosis, and footprint contact.

Question 224

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Which of the following statements is true regarding minimally invasive posterior lumbar interbody fusion:

. Minimally invasive fusion may only be safely performed with the assistance of endoscopy.
. Minimally invasive fusion has increased risk of nerve root injury.
. Internal fixation with pedicle screws is not possible via the minimally invasive approach.
. Intraoperative fluoroscopy if of great value in minimally invasive fusion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intraoperative fluoroscopy if of great value in minimally invasive fusion.


Explanation

Intraoperative fluoroscopy or radiography is vital for the proper identification of lumbar level and vertebral structures in minimally invasive posterior lumbar interbody fusions. While endoscopic assistance has been well described as a method of minimally invasive fusion, it is not vital to this technique. There is no evidence of increased risk of nerve root injury with minimally invasive techniques, and it is possible to internally fixate the lumbar segment with pedicle screws through minimally invasive techniques.

Question 225

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

In relation to the lumbar pedicle, the exiting nerve root is found:

. Immediately superior to the pedicle
. Immediately inferior to the pedicle
. At the midpoint between the superior and inferior level pedicles
. Nerve root has no anatomic relationship to the pedicle
. None of the above

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediately inferior to the pedicle


Explanation

The exiting nerve root is found traversing immediately inferior to the pedicle.

Question 226

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Regarding the anatomy of the lumbar pedicle, which of the following statements is true:

. The pedicle is located at the origin of the transverse process.
. The exiting nerve root is found immediately superior to the lumbar pedicle.
. The pedicle is located at the base of the superior facet, at the origin of the transverse process.
. The pedicle joins the vertebral body at its inferior border.
. There is no relationship between the pedicle and the superior facet.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The pedicle is located at the base of the superior facet, at the origin of the transverse process.


Explanation

The lumbar pedicle is the bony bridge that connects the posterior vertebral elements to the anterior body. The pedicle is located at the base of the superior facet, at the origin of the transverse process. The exiting nerve root traverses immediately inferior to the superior segment pedicle, and the pedicle joins the vertebral body at its superior half.

Question 227

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Which of the following serves as the best landmark for proper screw entry into the lumbar pedicle:

. The junction of the transverse process and inferior facet
. The junction of the transverse process and superior facet
. The articulating interface of the superior and inferior facets
. The medial border of the superior facet
. There is no relationship between the nerve root and the superior facet.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The junction of the transverse process and inferior facet


Explanation

The junction of the transverse process and the inferior facet represents the most appropriate entry point of the pedicle screw. This junction directly overlies the pedicle and ensures safe placement through the pedicle and into the vertebral body.

Question 228

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Aggressive osteoblastomas are distinguished from conventional osteoblastomas primarily by which histologic feature?

. Presence of plump, epithelioid osteoblasts
. Lack of osteoid matrix production
. Extensive areas of spontaneous necrosis
. Prominent hyaline cartilage matrix
. High mitotic rate with atypical mitoses

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of plump, epithelioid osteoblasts


Explanation

Aggressive osteoblastomas are characterized by the presence of plump, epithelioid osteoblasts. Despite their aggressive local behavior, they lack the atypical mitoses and destructive permeation seen in osteosarcoma.

Question 229

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 35-year-old female presents with an unresectable giant cell tumor of the sacrum. Which targeted pharmacologic therapy is most appropriate to induce tumor consolidation?

. Imatinib
. Denosumab
. Zoledronic acid
. Rituximab
. Methotrexate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Denosumab


Explanation

Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody against RANKL, which is overexpressed by the neoplastic stromal cells of GCT. It prevents osteoclast-like giant cell formation and induces profound tumor bone consolidation.

Question 230

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

What is the most critical factor in preventing local recurrence of a sacral chordoma following surgical management?

. Adjuvant chemotherapy
. Neoadjuvant radiation therapy
. Obtaining wide, negative margins en bloc
. Postoperative bisphosphonate therapy
. Preoperative embolization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtaining wide, negative margins en bloc


Explanation

Chordomas are notoriously chemoresistant and radioresistant. Complete en bloc excision with wide, negative margins is the most important factor in preventing local recurrence and achieving long-term survival.

Question 231

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 22-year-old male presents with dull, aching back pain that is not completely relieved by NSAIDs. Imaging reveals an expansile, radiolucent lesion measuring 3.5 cm in the posterior elements of L3. Histology shows disorganized osteoid surrounded by plump osteoblasts. Which of the following differentiates this lesion from an osteoid osteoma?

. Presence of a cartilaginous cap
. Size greater than 2 cm
. Location in the anterior vertebral body
. Absence of woven bone
. Malignant transformation potential

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Size greater than 2 cm


Explanation

Osteoblastoma and osteoid osteoma share similar histologic features, including vascular connective tissue and woven bone lined by osteoblasts. They are primarily distinguished by size, with osteoblastoma defined as being larger than 2 cm.

Question 232

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 32-year-old female undergoes curettage of an epiphyseal lytic lesion in the proximal tibia. Histology shows numerous multinucleated giant cells in a background of mononuclear stromal cells. If systemic therapy is required for unresectable disease, which cell surface receptor is targeted by the most appropriate pharmacological agent?

. HER2
. VEGFR
. RANKL
. PDGFR
. CD20

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RANKL


Explanation

The diagnosis is a giant cell tumor of bone. Denosumab, a monoclonal antibody, targets RANKL expressed by the neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells, preventing the recruitment and activation of osteoclast-like giant cells.

Question 233

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 65-year-old man with a history of renal cell carcinoma presents with acute myelopathy due to a pathologic fracture of L2. Decompression and stabilization are planned. Which preoperative intervention is most critical?

. Systemic chemotherapy
. Bisphosphonate infusion
. Preoperative selective arterial embolization
. Neoadjuvant radiation therapy
. Administration of high-dose denosumab

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative selective arterial embolization


Explanation

Renal cell carcinoma and thyroid carcinoma metastases are notoriously hypervascular. Preoperative selective arterial embolization is highly recommended to significantly reduce intraoperative blood loss during surgical decompression.

Question 234

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 35-year-old woman presents with a destructive lytic lesion in the sacrum. Biopsy reveals multinucleated giant cells intermixed with mononuclear stromal cells. The stromal cells are positive for H3F3A mutation. What is the most effective medical adjunct to surgery?

. Zoledronic acid
. Methotrexate
. Denosumab
. Imatinib
. Doxorubicin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Denosumab


Explanation

The diagnosis is a Giant Cell Tumor (GCT) of bone, confirmed by the H3F3A mutation in the neoplastic stromal cells. Denosumab, a RANKL inhibitor, is highly effective in downregulating the osteoclast-like giant cells and creating a calcified rim, aiding in surgical resection.

Question 235

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

A 30-year-old female presents with a sacral mass causing bowel dysfunction. Biopsy reveals multinucleated giant cells and mononuclear stromal cells. If surgical resection carries unacceptable morbidity, which targeted medical therapy is most appropriate?

. Imatinib
. Zoledronic acid
. Rituximab
. Denosumab
. Methotrexate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Denosumab


Explanation

Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody against RANKL, which is heavily expressed by the neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells in giant cell tumors. It prevents the activation of osteoclast-like giant cells and is FDA-approved for unresectable GCTs.

Question 236

Topic: Biology, Genetics & Bone Healing

Which of the following targeted treatments is correctly paired with its mechanism of action for managing unresectable giant cell tumors of bone?

. Denosumab: binds to RANKL, preventing osteoclast activation
. Imatinib: inhibits tyrosine kinase activity
. Bevacizumab: inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Bisphosphonates: directly induces apoptosis of mononuclear neoplastic cells
. Methotrexate: competitively inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Denosumab: binds to RANKL, preventing osteoclast activation


Explanation

Denosumab binds to RANKL, preventing it from binding to RANK on the surface of osteoclast precursors. This inhibits the formation and activity of the osteoclast-like giant cells responsible for the severe osteolysis in GCT.

Question 237

Topic: Physiology & Rehabilitation

Patients with anterior cord syndrome usually presents with:

. Preservation of motor function, preservation of pain and temperature sensation, and loss of vibration and touch sensation
. Preservation of motor function, with loss of pain, temperature, vibration, and touch sensation
. Motor paralysis, loss of pain, temperature, vibration, and touch sensation
. Motor paralysis, loss of pain and temperature sensation, and preservation of vibration and touch sensation
. Motor paralysis, loss of vibration and touch sensation, and preservation of pain and temperature sensation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Motor paralysis, loss of pain and temperature sensation, and preservation of vibration and touch sensation


Explanation

Anterior cord syndrome is due to injury of the anterior elements of the spinal cord, which is usually due to a space-occupying lesion anterior to the cord such as vertebral body fracture fragments, a herniated disk, or a hematoma. The clinical presentation consists of: Complete motor paralysis (loss of anterior corticospinal tract) Loss of pain/temperature sensation (loss of lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts) Preservation of vibration sensation/proprioception and light touch sensation (preservation of dorsal columns) In less severe cases, some motor function is preserved through the lateral corticospinal pathways. Prognosis is generally poor and in patients with absence of sacral sensation (pin prick/temperature) after 24 hours following injury, recovery is seen in 10% of patients.

Question 238

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

Osteochondromatosis is a hereditary genetic disorder that is:

. Autosomal recessive with incomplete penetrance
. Autosomal recessive with complete penetrance
. Autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance
. Sex-linked dominant
. Sex-linked recessive

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance


Explanation

Osteochondromatosis (also known as hereditary multiple exostoses) is a genetic disorder that is autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance in women. The genetic defect occurs on the EXT1, EXT2, and EXT 3 genes located on chromosome 8q24.

Question 239

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

In a normal, asymptomatic adult, the C7 plumb line (Sagittal Vertical Axis) should fall within what distance relative to the posterior superior corner of the S1 endplate?

. Less than 1 cm
. Within 5 cm
. Between 5 and 10 cm
. Between 10 and 15 cm
. Greater than 15 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 5 cm


Explanation

A normal sagittal vertical axis (SVA) is considered balanced when the C7 plumb line falls within 5 cm of the posterior superior corner of the sacrum. Values greater than 5 cm anteriorly indicate positive sagittal imbalance.

Question 240

Topic: 1. General Principles & Basic Science

A 65-year-old patient requires a corrective osteotomy for a rigid flatback deformity. Approximately how much sagittal correction can be expected from a single-level pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO)?

. 5 to 10 degrees
. 10 to 15 degrees
. 15 to 20 degrees
. 30 to 35 degrees
. 45 to 50 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30 to 35 degrees


Explanation

A pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO) is a three-column, closing-wedge osteotomy hinged at the anterior cortex. It typically provides 30 to 35 degrees of lordosis correction per treated level.