This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Surgical Anatomy & Approaches. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1861
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, excessive medial retraction of the conjoined tendon puts the musculocutaneous nerve at risk. This nerve classically penetrates which of the following muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coracobrachialis
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve branches from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus and typically penetrates the coracobrachialis muscle 5 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process. Excessive medial retraction of the conjoined tendon can stretch or injure it.
Question 1862
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient sustains a closed fracture of the humerus resulting in a radial nerve palsy. According to the Sunderland classification, a third-degree nerve injury is characterized by disruption of the axon and which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Endoneurium only
Explanation
A Sunderland 3rd degree injury involves disruption of the axon and the endoneurium, but the perineurium and epineurium remain intact. Recovery is unpredictable and often requires surgical exploration if no clinical improvement is seen.
Question 1863
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
Following a closed humerus fracture, a patient exhibits a complete radial nerve palsy. Electromyography (EMG) performed at 4 weeks shows fibrillation potentials in the brachioradialis but no voluntary motor unit action potentials. This finding indicates:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axonotmesis or neurotmesis with Wallerian degeneration
Explanation
Fibrillation potentials on an EMG indicate denervated muscle fibers, confirming that axonal discontinuity (axonotmesis or neurotmesis) has occurred and Wallerian degeneration is present. Neuropraxia (a pure conduction block) would not demonstrate fibrillations because the axon itself remains intact.
Question 1864
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient undergoes a primary THA via the direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach. Postoperatively, she reports a burning sensation and numbness over the anterolateral aspect of her thigh. Which nerve is most likely affected, and between which two muscles does it typically emerge in the proximal thigh?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve; Sartorius and Tensor Fasciae Latae
Explanation
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is highly susceptible to injury during the direct anterior approach to the hip. The LFCN typically emerges in the proximal thigh between the tensor fasciae latae (TFL) and the sartorius muscle, coursing superficially. The internervous plane for the direct anterior approach is also between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and TFL (superior gluteal nerve) superficially.
Question 1865
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During hip arthroscopy, establishing the anterior portal requires careful anatomic knowledge. Placing the anterior portal too medial or deep puts which of the following nerves at highest risk?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Explanation
The anterior portal for hip arthroscopy is established slightly lateral to the intersection of a vertical line from the ASIS and a horizontal line from the tip of the greater trochanter. It carries a significant risk of injury to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) branches and the femoral nerve if placed too medial.
Question 1866
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) for total hip arthroplasty utilizes a true internervous and intermuscular plane. This plane separates muscles innervated by which two nerves?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve
Explanation
The direct anterior approach uses the internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The deep dissection passes between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).
Question 1867
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During surgical approach for an acetabular fracture utilizing the ilioinguinal approach, the surgeon must be cautious of the 'corona mortis'. This anatomical structure is a vascular anastomosis between which two vascular systems?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. External iliac and internal iliac (obturator) systems
Explanation
The 'corona mortis' (crown of death) is an important vascular anastomosis situated over the superior pubic ramus, connecting the external iliac system (inferior epigastric vessels) and the internal iliac system (obturator vessels). It can be either arterial, venous, or both, and is at risk of iatrogenic injury during anterior pelvic approaches.
Question 1868
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 25-year-old male sustains a closed humerus fracture and subsequent radial nerve palsy. Electromyography (EMG) at 4 weeks shows fibrillation potentials, but the nerve sheath remains intact. According to Sunderland's classification, this corresponds to a 2nd-degree injury. What is the equivalent Seddon classification and prognosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axonotmesis; recovery expected at 1 mm/day
Explanation
A 2nd-degree Sunderland injury corresponds to Seddon's axonotmesis, where the axon is disrupted but the endoneurium is intact. Wallerian degeneration occurs, but spontaneous recovery is expected at approximately 1 mm/day.
Question 1869
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old male sustains a closed mid-shaft humeral fracture resulting in an immediate complete radial nerve palsy. He is treated non-operatively with a functional brace. At 12 weeks post-injury, the fracture shows early signs of union, but there is no clinical or electromyographic (EMG) evidence of radial nerve recovery. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Perform a radial nerve exploration and potential neurolysis or repair
Explanation
Immediate radial nerve palsy associated with a closed humeral shaft fracture is typically treated expectantly. However, if there is no clinical or EMG evidence of recovery by 12 to 16 weeks (3-4 months), surgical exploration of the radial nerve is indicated. Continuing observation beyond this window risks irreversible motor endplate loss.
Question 1870
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a lateral deltoid-splitting approach for open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture, the surgeon must identify and protect the axillary nerve. At what average distance distal to the lateral edge of the acromion does the axillary nerve cross the humerus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 5 to 7 cm
Explanation
The axillary nerve courses transversally across the surgical neck of the humerus at an average distance of 5 to 7 cm distal to the lateral border of the acromion. The deltoid split should not extend beyond 5 cm to avoid iatrogenic denervation of the anterior deltoid.
Question 1871
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 25-year-old male sustains a closed midshaft humeral fracture with an immediate radial nerve palsy. Closed reduction is performed, and post-reduction examination reveals a worsening of the radial nerve palsy. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve
Explanation
Worsening or new-onset radial nerve palsy following closed reduction of a humeral shaft fracture is an absolute indication for immediate surgical exploration. This is because the nerve may be iatrogenically entrapped between the fracture fragments.
Question 1872
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a surgical approach to the anterior elbow (Henry approach), which interval is utilized to access the proximal radius, and which nerve must be protected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Flexor Carpi Radialis and Pronator Teres; Median nerve
Explanation
The anterior (Henry) approach to the proximal radius utilizes the internervous plane between the brachioradialis (innervated by the radial nerve) and the pronator teres (median nerve). The radial nerve and its branches (particularly the PIN) must be carefully protected during deep dissection.
Question 1873
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis, the surgeon inadvertently places a medial retractor too aggressively on the humerus. The patient postoperatively demonstrates weakness in elbow flexion and numbness over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
Medial retraction during a subpectoral biceps tenodesis places the musculocutaneous nerve at risk. Injury presents as weakness in the biceps and brachialis muscles alongside sensory loss in the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve distribution.
Question 1874
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach for a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon dissects through the superficial internervous plane. This plane separates muscles innervated by which two nerves?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral nerve and superior gluteal nerve
Explanation
The direct anterior approach utilizes a true internervous and intermuscular plane. The superficial interval is between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The deep interval is between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and the gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).
Question 1875
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
In the direct anterior approach for THA (Smith-Petersen interval), the superficial internervous plane is developed between which of the following pairs of muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
Explanation
The direct anterior approach utilizes the true internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).
Question 1876
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip utilizes an internervous plane between muscles supplied by which two specific nerves?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior gluteal nerve and femoral nerve
Explanation
The direct anterior approach utilizes a true internervous and intermuscular plane. It dissects between the tensor fasciae latae (supplied by the superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius/rectus femoris (supplied by the femoral nerve).
Question 1877
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon utilizes the direct anterior approach for a primary THA. This approach exploits an internervous and intermuscular plane. Which of the following accurately describes the superficial interval used in this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Between the sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
Explanation
The superficial internervous plane of the direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach is between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve).
Question 1878
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon is utilizing the direct anterior approach for a primary THA. This approach exploits a true internervous plane. Between which two muscles is the superficial surgical interval developed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tensor fasciae latae and sartorius
Explanation
The superficial interval of the direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach is between the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve). This provides a true internervous and intermuscular plane.
Question 1879
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 24-year-old sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After closed reduction, he has numbness over the lateral deltoid and cannot actively contract the muscle. At 3 weeks post-injury, he has no clinical improvement, and an EMG demonstrates fibrillation potentials in the deltoid and teres minor. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Clinical observation and physical therapy, with a repeat EMG at 3 months if no recovery.
Explanation
Axillary nerve palsy is the most common neurologic complication of an anterior shoulder dislocation. Fibrillation potentials at 3 weeks indicate axonotmesis (Wallerian degeneration). However, most cases still recover spontaneously. The standard of care is clinical observation and supportive therapy, with a repeat EMG/NCS at 3 months to evaluate for reinnervation before considering surgical exploration.
Question 1880
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 29-year-old elite tennis player presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and early fatigue. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the teres minor. MR angiography demonstrates focal occlusion of the posterior circumflex humeral artery when the shoulder is positioned in abduction and external rotation. This pathology involves compression within a space bound superiorly by which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Humeral shaft
Explanation
The patient has Quadrilateral Space Syndrome, which involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. The boundaries of the quadrilateral space are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and humeral shaft (lateral).
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.