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Question 1301

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a deltopectoral approach for a total shoulder arthroplasty, the cephalic vein is identified. Which of the following correctly describes its anatomical relationship and the recommended method of retraction during this approach?

. Lies in the deltopectoral groove and is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid.
. Lies in the deltopectoral groove and is typically retracted medially with the pectoralis major.
. Pierces the clavipectoral fascia medial to the coracoid process and is retracted superiorly.
. Runs deep to the short head of the biceps and is retracted laterally.
. Branches directly from the axillary vein and is ligated routinely.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lies in the deltopectoral groove and is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid.


Explanation

The cephalic vein lies in the internervous plane of the deltopectoral groove (between the deltoid and pectoralis major). During the deltopectoral approach, it is most commonly retracted laterally with the deltoid. This preserves its major venous tributaries, which predominantly originate from the deltoid muscle, decreasing the risk of bleeding and postoperative upper extremity edema.

Question 1302

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an ilioinguinal approach for an anterior column acetabular fracture, the surgeon encounters massive, pulsatile hemorrhage while exposing the superior pubic ramus. This bleeding most likely originates from an anomalous vascular connection (corona mortis) bridging which two vascular systems?

. External iliac/inferior epigastric vessels and the internal pudendal vessels
. External iliac/inferior epigastric vessels and the obturator vessels
. Internal iliac vessels and the superior gluteal vessels
. Femoral artery and the deep external pudendal artery
. Internal iliac vessels and the inferior gluteal vessels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac/inferior epigastric vessels and the obturator vessels


Explanation

The corona mortis ('crown of death') is an anatomical variant representing a vascular anastomosis between the external iliac system (usually the inferior epigastric artery or vein) and the internal iliac system (obturator artery or vein). It crosses the superior pubic ramus at an average distance of 5 to 6 cm from the symphysis pubis and is highly vulnerable to iatrogenic injury during anterior pelvic approaches (ilioinguinal or modified Stoppa) to the acetabulum or pelvic ring.

Question 1303

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old hockey player undergoes hip arthroscopy for a symptomatic CAM-type femoroacetabular impingement and a focal anterosuperior labral tear. The anterolateral (AL) portal is established first under fluoroscopic guidance. To safely establish the mid-anterior (MAP) portal, the surgeon must remain lateral to the sagittal plane of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS). Deviating medial to this plane primarily increases the risk of injury to which of the following structures?

. Femoral nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Sciatic nerve
. Ilioinguinal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

During hip arthroscopy, the mid-anterior portal (MAP) is typically placed 5 to 7 cm distal to the anterolateral portal at approximately a 45-degree angle. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is at greatest risk during the establishment of the anterior portals. Staying lateral to the sagittal plane extending distally from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) helps minimize the risk of injuring the LFCN, which typically courses medial to this plane. The femoral nerve and artery are located further medially within the femoral triangle.

Question 1304

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis, the surgeon creates a cortical window in the bicipital groove just distal to the transverse humeral ligament. However, due to extensive fraying of the long head of the biceps tendon, the incision and deep dissection are extended further distally along the humeral shaft. If medial retractors are placed too aggressively deep to the conjoined tendon and biceps muscle belly during this distal extension, which neurovascular structure is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

During an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis, the musculocutaneous nerve is the primary neural structure at risk. It classically pierces the coracobrachialis approximately 5 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process and courses distally between the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles. Aggressive medial retraction, especially when the approach is extended distally beneath the conjoined tendon and biceps muscle belly, places excessive traction on or risks direct injury to the musculocutaneous nerve.

Question 1305

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis, the conjoint tendon is retracted medially to optimize exposure of the bicipital groove and pectoralis major tendon. Overzealous medial retraction of the conjoint tendon is most likely to result in injury to which of the following nerves?

. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle approximately 5 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process. During open subpectoral biceps tenodesis, retracting the conjoint tendon medially places the musculocutaneous nerve at significant risk of traction injury or direct transection if dissection strays too far medial.

Question 1306

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 19-year-old collegiate wrestler sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, he complains of numbness over the lateral deltoid and demonstrates weakness with shoulder abduction. Electromyography (EMG) confirms an isolated neurapraxia. What is the expected anatomic distance of the affected nerve from the inferior border of the glenoid at the 6 o'clock position?

. 2 to 3 mm
. 10 to 15 mm
. 25 to 30 mm
. 40 to 45 mm
. 50 to 55 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 15 mm


Explanation

The patient has an axillary nerve injury, the most commonly injured nerve during anterior shoulder dislocations. The axillary nerve passes through the quadrangular space and courses closely inferior to the glenohumeral joint capsule. Anatomic studies show that the axillary nerve lies, on average, approximately 10 to 15 mm (around 12 mm) inferior to the 6 o'clock position of the glenoid rim. It is highly at risk during procedures that require inferior capsular release.

Question 1307

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 26-year-old male ice hockey player presents with deep anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees and no crossover sign. Arthroscopy is planned. During hip arthroscopy, establishing the anterior portal places which of the following structures at greatest risk?

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Femoral artery
. Pudendal nerve
. Sciatic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The anterior portal is located at the intersection of a sagittal line drawn distally from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and a transverse line from the greater trochanter. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve and terminal branches of the femoral nerve are at greatest risk when establishing this portal.

Question 1308

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 55-year-old manual laborer undergoes an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair with an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis. What nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if medial retractors are placed too aggressively during the subpectoral exposure?

. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve is at significant risk if medial retraction is too deep or aggressive during a subpectoral biceps tenodesis, as it pierces the coracobrachialis medial to the surgical field.

Question 1309

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction using the docking technique, a muscle-splitting approach through the flexor pronator mass is utilized. Which nerve is most at risk of iatrogenic injury during this specific surgical approach?

. Median nerve
. Radial nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve
. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
. Posterior interosseous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve (MABC) and its branches run superficially over the medial epicondyle and are highly vulnerable during the surgical approach to the ulnar collateral ligament.

Question 1310

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The Smith-Petersen (direct anterior) approach is frequently utilized for THA and pelvic procedures.

Which two muscles define the true superficial internervous plane of this surgical approach?

. Tensor fasciae latae and sartorius
. Gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae
. Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
. Sartorius and rectus femoris
. Pectineus and adductor longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tensor fasciae latae and sartorius


Explanation

The superficial interval of the Smith-Petersen approach utilizes the internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The deep interval is between the rectus femoris and gluteus medius.

Question 1311

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 60-year-old man undergoes a total hip arthroplasty via a direct anterior approach using the primary inter-nervous plane between the tensor fasciae latae and the sartorius. Postoperatively, he complains of numbness and a burning sensation over the anterolateral aspect of his operative thigh. Which nerve was most likely injured during the surgical exposure, and what are its corresponding nerve roots?

. Femoral nerve (L2-L4)
. Sciatic nerve (L4-S3)
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (L2-L3)
. Superior gluteal nerve (L4-S1)
. Obturator nerve (L2-L4)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (L2-L3)


Explanation

The direct anterior approach to the hip utilizes the superficial internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN), derived from the L2-L3 nerve roots, passes over or through the sartorius muscle and is at high risk of stretch or iatrogenic transection during this approach. Injury leads to meralgia paresthetica (numbness/burning over the anterolateral thigh).

Question 1312

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 55-year-old woman undergoes a primary right total hip arthroplasty via a direct anterior approach. Postoperatively, she reports a burning sensation and numbness over the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. Motor function of her lower extremity is completely intact. During the surgical approach, which of the following internervous planes was utilized, and which nerve is most likely injured?

. Sartorius and Tensor Fasciae Latae; Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Gluteus Medius and Tensor Fasciae Latae; Superior gluteal nerve
. Sartorius and Rectus Femoris; Femoral nerve
. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius; Sciatic nerve
. Adductor Longus and Gracilis; Obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius and Tensor Fasciae Latae; Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) to the hip utilizes the superficial internervous plane between the sartorius (supplied by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (supplied by the superior gluteal nerve). The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is entirely sensory, supplying the anterolateral thigh. It typically crosses over the sartorius muscle distally and is at high risk of stretch or transection during the superficial dissection of the direct anterior approach.

Question 1313

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A surgeon is performing a primary total hip arthroplasty using a direct anterior approach.

The internervous plane utilized is between the tensor fasciae latae and the sartorius superficially. During the exposure, care must be taken to avoid a nerve that typically crosses the surgical field. Injury to this structure will most likely result in:

. Weakness of hip abduction
. Weakness of hip flexion
. Sensory loss over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh
. Sensory loss over the medial aspect of the thigh
. A positive Trendelenburg gait

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sensory loss over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh


Explanation

The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) utilizes the superficial internervous plane between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) is at significant risk during this superficial dissection. It is a purely sensory nerve providing innervation to the anterolateral thigh. Injury to the LFCN results in sensory loss, numbness, or dysesthesia over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh (meralgia paresthetica), without causing any motor weakness.

Question 1314

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a total hip arthroplasty utilizing the direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach, the internervous plane is developed between the tensor fasciae latae (TFL) and the sartorius. Which of the following nerves is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the superficial dissection and subsequent retractor placement?

. Superior gluteal nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The direct anterior approach utilizes the internervous plane between the TFL (superior gluteal nerve) and the sartorius (femoral nerve). The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN) courses over the sartorius and is highly susceptible to injury during the superficial dissection or from retractor compression, potentially leading to meralgia paresthetica.

Question 1315

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) to the hip is frequently utilized in primary total hip arthroplasty to exploit a true internervous plane. Which of the following best describes the superficial internervous plane utilized in this approach?

. Between the Sartorius (femoral nerve) and Tensor Fasciae Latae (superior gluteal nerve)
. Between the Rectus Femoris (femoral nerve) and Gluteus Medius (superior gluteal nerve)
. Between the Pectineus (femoral nerve) and Iliopsoas (femoral nerve)
. Between the Gluteus Maximus (inferior gluteal nerve) and Gluteus Medius (superior gluteal nerve)
. Between the Adductor Longus (obturator nerve) and Gracilis (obturator nerve)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the Sartorius (femoral nerve) and Tensor Fasciae Latae (superior gluteal nerve)


Explanation

The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) utilizes the true internervous and intermuscular plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve) superficially. The deep interval is between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 1316

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 42-year-old woman with severe bilateral hip dysplasia presents for right THA. Preoperative standing AP pelvis radiographs demonstrate proximal migration of the femoral head such that it articulates with a false acetabulum. The proximal migration is measured at 110% of the normal vertical height of the femoral head. According to the Crowe classification, what is the appropriate diagnosis, and what adjunctive surgical technique is most likely required during THA?
. Crowe II; structural bone grafting of the superior acetabulum
. Crowe III; greater trochanteric advancement
. Crowe IV; subtrochanteric femoral shortening osteotomy
. Crowe IV; release of the transverse acetabular ligament only
. Crowe III; femoral nerve release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Crowe IV; subtrochanteric femoral shortening osteotomy


Explanation

The Crowe classification characterizes the severity of DDH based on proximal migration. Crowe IV is defined as >100% proximal migration (or >20% of the pelvic height). In Crowe IV hips, bringing the femoral head down to the true acetabulum often results in excessive tension on the sciatic nerve. To safely reduce the hip and protect the neurovascular structures, a subtrochanteric femoral shortening osteotomy is frequently required.

Question 1317

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A surgeon is performing a primary total hip arthroplasty utilizing the direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen). Development of the superficial internervous plane is required for initial exposure. Which two muscles define this superficial plane, and what are their respective innervations?

. Sartorius (Femoral nerve) and Tensor fasciae latae (Superior gluteal nerve)
. Rectus femoris (Femoral nerve) and Gluteus medius (Superior gluteal nerve)
. Tensor fasciae latae (Superior gluteal nerve) and Gluteus medius (Superior gluteal nerve)
. Gluteus maximus (Inferior gluteal nerve) and Tensor fasciae latae (Superior gluteal nerve)
. Sartorius (Obturator nerve) and Gracilis (Obturator nerve)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius (Femoral nerve) and Tensor fasciae latae (Superior gluteal nerve)


Explanation

The direct anterior approach utilizes a true internervous and intermuscular plane. Superficially, the dissection passes between the sartorius muscle (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve). The deep intermuscular plane is between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and the gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 1318

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a direct anterior approach for total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon dissects through an internervous plane. Which two nerves supply the muscles that form the superficial boundary of this interval?

. Femoral nerve and Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve and Inferior gluteal nerve
. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve
. Sciatic nerve and Superior gluteal nerve
. Femoral nerve and Sciatic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The direct anterior approach utilizes the internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).

Question 1319

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a direct anterior approach to the hip, which internervous plane is utilized?

. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve
. Femoral nerve and Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve and Inferior gluteal nerve
. Obturator nerve and Femoral nerve
. Sciatic nerve and Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve and Superior gluteal nerve


Explanation

The direct anterior approach (Smith-Petersen) utilizes the true internervous plane between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).

Question 1320

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip is popular for total hip arthroplasty because it exploits a true internervous plane. Which two muscles define the superficial interval of this approach?

. Tensor fasciae latae and sartorius
. Gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae
. Sartorius and rectus femoris
. Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
. Pectineus and adductor longus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tensor fasciae latae and sartorius


Explanation

The superficial interval for the direct anterior approach is between the sartorius (innervated by the femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (innervated by the superior gluteal nerve).