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Question 81

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When performing an extensile posterior approach to the humerus using a triceps-splitting technique, the surgeon must be careful to avoid denervating the medial head of the triceps. Which branch of the radial nerve is at greatest risk during the distal split of the triceps muscle?

. Nerve to the long head of the triceps
. Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm
. Branch to the anconeus
. Posterior cutaneous nerve of the forearm
. Deep branch of the radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Branch to the anconeus


Explanation

The branch to the anconeus travels through the medial head of the triceps to reach the anconeus muscle. During a midline triceps-splitting approach, dissecting too far medially or splitting aggressively in the distal third can injure this branch and denervate the medial head.

Question 82

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient is scheduled for ORIF of a proximal humerus fracture via a standard deltopectoral approach. During the deep dissection, the surgeon visualizes the conjoined tendon. Retraction of the conjoined tendon medially places which neurological structure at highest risk?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Median nerve
. Radial nerve
. Suprascapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

Vigorous medial retraction of the conjoined tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis) during the deltopectoral approach places the musculocutaneous nerve at high risk of stretch injury. The nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis 3 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process.

Question 83

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 72-year-old male undergoes a minimally invasive plate osteosynthesis (MIPO) via an anterior approach for a proximal humerus fracture extending into the diaphysis. The surgeon passes a long locking plate submuscularly from proximal to distal. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during distal screw placement in this technique?

. Axillary nerve
. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Median nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial nerve


Explanation

During the anterior MIPO technique for the humerus, the radial nerve is at significant risk during distal screw placement. As the nerve courses anteriorly through the lateral intermuscular septum into the distal anterolateral arm, it can be injured by drill bits, screws, or the plate itself if passed blindly.

Question 84

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

The Thompson approach to the proximal radius is often utilized for treating complex radius fractures. What is the precise internervous interval utilized in this surgical approach?

. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis
. Brachioradialis and pronator teres
. Flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus
. Anconeus and extensor carpi ulnaris
. Extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis


Explanation

The Thompson approach uses the interval between the extensor carpi radialis brevis (radial nerve) and the extensor digitorum communis (posterior interosseous nerve). The posterior interosseous nerve is at risk within the supinator muscle during deep dissection.

Question 85

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an anterolateral approach to the humeral shaft, the surgeon splits the brachialis muscle longitudinally to expose the bone. What is the neurovascular rationale for splitting the brachialis muscle rather than retracting it entirely?

. It protects the median nerve which lies immediately posterior to the muscle.
. The medial half is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and the lateral half by the radial nerve.
. The entire muscle is innervated by the radial nerve, so splitting it preserves the main motor branch.
. It prevents injury to the anterior circumflex humeral artery.
. The muscle lacks a defined fascial compartment, making retraction impossible.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The medial half is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and the lateral half by the radial nerve.


Explanation

The brachialis has dual innervation: the medial portion is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve, while the lateral portion is innervated by the radial nerve. Splitting the muscle longitudinally safely exploits this internervous plane.

Question 86

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 40-year-old female sustains a Bryan-Morrey Type I capitellar shear fracture. The surgeon elects to use the Kocher approach for open reduction and internal fixation. What is the superficial internervous interval utilized in this approach?

. Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis
. Extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris
. Anconeus and extensor carpi ulnaris
. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anconeus and extensor carpi ulnaris


Explanation

The Kocher approach utilizes the interval between the anconeus (innervated by the radial nerve) and the extensor carpi ulnaris (innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve).

Question 87

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A surgeon is performing a volar Henry approach for fixation of a middle-third radius fracture. During the proximal exposure, careful dissection is required to protect the superficial radial nerve and radial artery. What is the internervous interval in the proximal portion of the volar Henry approach?

. Pronator teres and brachioradialis
. Flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus
. Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi ulnaris
. Brachialis and biceps brachii
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pronator teres and brachioradialis


Explanation

The proximal internervous interval for the volar Henry approach is between the pronator teres (median nerve) and the brachioradialis (radial nerve). Distally, the interval shifts to between the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis.

Question 88

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 30-year-old male sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture with an intact radial nerve on initial exam. Following closed reduction and placement of a coaptation splint in the emergency department, a complete radial nerve palsy is noted. According to AAOS guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate operative exploration of the radial nerve
. Observation, as secondary palsies resolve at the same rate as primary palsies
. Electromyography (EMG) within 24 hours
. Removal or bivalving of the splint and reassessment of the nerve
. Stat MRI of the humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Removal or bivalving of the splint and reassessment of the nerve


Explanation

A secondary radial nerve palsy that occurs immediately after manipulation or splinting mandates removal of the splint, reassessment of alignment, and re-evaluation. If the palsy persists, the need for immediate exploration remains controversial but is heavily considered if the nerve is thought to be entrapped.

Question 89

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A patient with a closed humeral shaft fracture presents with a primary radial nerve palsy. The fracture is managed non-operatively. At what time point is an electromyogram (EMG) and nerve conduction study indicated if there is no clinical sign of nerve recovery?

. Immediately after injury
. 2 weeks post-injury
. 6 weeks post-injury
. 4 months post-injury
. 6 months post-injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 6 weeks post-injury


Explanation

If no clinical recovery of a primary radial nerve palsy is seen, a baseline EMG is typically obtained at 6 weeks post-injury to look for nascent fibrillation potentials and evaluate for nerve continuity. Operative exploration is typically reserved for 3-4 months if no recovery occurs.

Question 90

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When performing a posterior approach to the humeral shaft, the surgeon must be acutely aware of the radial nerve's location. On average, at what distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does the radial nerve cross the posterior aspect of the humerus?

. 5 cm
. 10 cm
. 14 cm
. 20 cm
. 24 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 14 cm


Explanation

The radial nerve runs posterior to the humerus roughly 14 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle and approximately 20 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle.

Question 91

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A surgeon utilizes the lateral (Kocher) approach to the elbow to access the radial head in a Bado Type II Monteggia variant. Which internervous plane is utilized in this approach?

. Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
. Extensor carpi ulnaris and anconeus
. Flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis
. Pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis
. Extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi radialis brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor carpi ulnaris and anconeus


Explanation

The Kocher approach utilizes the true internervous plane between the anconeus (innervated by the radial nerve) and the extensor carpi ulnaris (innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve).

Question 92

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When utilizing the posterior approach to the humerus for internal fixation of a diaphyseal fracture, at what approximate distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does the radial nerve pierce the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment?

. 2 to 4 cm
. 5 to 7 cm
. 10 to 12 cm
. 15 to 17 cm
. 20 to 22 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 12 cm


Explanation

The radial nerve passes from the posterior compartment to the anterior compartment by piercing the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. This is a critical danger zone during the posterior approach to the distal humerus.

Question 93

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 55-year-old carpenter with severe erosive osteoarthritis of the index finger PIP joint, refractory to conservative treatment, elects for surgical arthrodesis to achieve a stable, pain-free joint for his demanding profession. During the procedure, after preparing the articular surfaces, the surgeon aims to achieve the optimal fusion angle for the index finger PIP joint. Which of the following angles is generally considered most appropriate for fusion of the index finger PIP joint to facilitate optimal object manipulation, pinch, and grip?

. 0-10 degrees of flexion
. 15-20 degrees of flexion
. 30-45 degrees of flexion
. 50-60 degrees of flexion
. 70-80 degrees of flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30-45 degrees of flexion


Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe 'Detailed Surgical Approach / Technique' section, under 'Arthrodesis of the PIP Joint,' states: 'The index PIP joint is typically fused in 30-45 degrees of flexion. This angle allows for optimal object manipulation, pinch, and grip without interfering with adjacent digits. For the index finger, a slightly more extended position (30-35 degrees) may be preferred to facilitate lateral pinch.' The image (Figure 2) shows a dorsal mini-fragment plate used for rigid fixation, which is a common method for achieving this desired fusion angle.Incorrect Options:A & B:Fusion at 0-20 degrees of flexion would make it difficult to form a functional grip or pinch, as the finger would be too straight to conform to objects.D & E:Fusion at 50-80 degrees of flexion would result in a finger that is too flexed, potentially interfering with adjacent digits, making it difficult to extend the finger for object release, and hindering effective pinch and grip.

Question 94

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A surgeon is performing a trapeziectomy with LRTI for advanced thumb CMC arthritis. After excising the trapezium, the next step involves preparing the FCR tendon for reconstruction. Referring to the provided image and the case description, which statement accurately describes the FCR tendon harvest for a standard LRTI?

. The entire FCR tendon is transected distally and used as a free graft for interposition only.
. A proximally based slip, approximately one-third to one-half the width of the FCR tendon and 8-10 cm long, is harvested from its radial aspect.
. A distally based slip of the FCR tendon is harvested and passed through the scaphoid for suspension.
. The FCR tendon is used solely for interposition, with the Palmaris Longus used for suspension.
. The FCR tendon is harvested from its ulnar aspect to preserve radial wrist flexion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A proximally based slip, approximately one-third to one-half the width of the FCR tendon and 8-10 cm long, is harvested from its radial aspect.


Explanation

Correct Answer: BUnder "Detailed Surgical Approach / Technique Trapeziectomy with LRTI - FCR Tendon Harvest," the case states: "A slip of the FCR tendon, approximately one-third to one-half of its width, and about 8-10 cm long, is harvested from its radial aspect. The slip is proximally based and distally released from its insertion..." The image visually supports the concept of a tendon slip being used for reconstruction.Option A is incorrect; while the entire FCR can be used, the standard LRTI often uses a slip, and it's used for both suspension and interposition, not just interposition. Option C is incorrect; the slip is proximally based, not distally, and while the scaphoid can be an anchoring point in some variations, it's not the primary method described for the slip passage itself. Option D is incorrect; the FCR is typically used for both components. Option E is incorrect; the slip is harvested from the radial aspect, and preserving a portion of the FCR (as opposed to the entire tendon) is what helps maintain some wrist flexion function, not harvesting from a specific aspect to preserve it.

Question 95

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When utilizing an anterolateral surgical approach for the open reduction and internal fixation of a severe pilon fracture, which of the following neurologic structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?

. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial peroneal nerve


Explanation

The anterolateral approach to the distal tibia/pilon places the superficial peroneal nerve at high risk as it crosses the surgical field anteriorly. Careful dissection and retraction are required to prevent neuroma formation and sensory deficits.

Question 96

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 22-year-old athlete sustains a rotational ankle injury. Radiographs show a fracture of the proximal third of the fibula and widening of the medial clear space. What structure is highly at risk during surgical approach or from the injury itself in this specific fracture pattern?

. Tibial nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Common peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve
. Saphenous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal nerve


Explanation

A Maisonneuve fracture involves a proximal fibula fracture with an associated syndesmotic disruption and medial injury. The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck and is at risk from both the injury and the proximal surgical approach.

Question 97

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During open reduction and internal fixation of a medial malleolus fracture, a longitudinal incision is made directly over the medial malleolus. Which neurological structure is most at risk of injury during the superficial dissection in this area?

. Sural nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Superficial peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Saphenous nerve


Explanation

The saphenous nerve and the greater saphenous vein run in close proximity anterior to the medial malleolus. They are at significant risk of iatrogenic injury during surgical approaches to the medial malleolus.

Question 98

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

When planning surgery for a severe, fixed positive sagittal imbalance in an adult deformity patient, which of the following osteotomies reliably provides the greatest amount of sagittal plane correction per level without complete segmental resection?

. Smith-Petersen osteotomy (SPO)
. Ponte osteotomy
. Pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO)
. Transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion (TLIF)
. Anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL) release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO)


Explanation

A Pedicle Subtraction Osteotomy (PSO) involves resection of the posterior elements and a wedge of the vertebral body, providing approximately 30 to 40 degrees of sagittal lordosis at a single level. SPOs and Ponte osteotomies typically provide only 10 degrees per level.

Question 99

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

An adult patient with severe fixed positive sagittal imbalance and previous long-segment lumbar fusion requires surgical correction. The surgeon plans a three-column osteotomy to achieve the necessary lordosis. Approximately how much lordotic correction can typically be obtained from a single-level pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO)?

. 5 to 10 degrees
. 15 to 20 degrees
. 30 to 40 degrees
. 45 to 55 degrees
. 60 to 70 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30 to 40 degrees


Explanation

A single-level pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO) typically provides approximately 30 to 40 degrees of sagittal correction. This is in contrast to a Smith-Petersen osteotomy (SPO), which provides about 10 degrees of correction per level.

Question 100

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

Which surgical approach provides the best exposure for ORIF of a radial head fracture while minimizing the risk to the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)?

. Posterolateral approach (Kocher approach)
. Anterior approach (Henry approach)
. Medial approach
. Direct posterior approach
. Lateral approach with anconeus muscle split

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral approach (Kocher approach)


Explanation

Correct Answer: AThe posterolateral approach, also known as the Kocher approach, is widely preferred for radial head fractures. It uses the interval between the anconeus and extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU) muscles. This approach protects the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN), which typically lies within the supinator muscle, distal and anterior to the radial head. The anterior (Henry) approach risks the PIN more directly, and medial or direct posterior approaches are generally not suitable for radial head fixation. The lateral approach with anconeus muscle split is similar to Kocher but the key is the safe interval.