This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Surgical Anatomy & Approaches. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 81
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When performing an extensile posterior approach to the humerus using a triceps-splitting technique, the surgeon must be careful to avoid denervating the medial head of the triceps. Which branch of the radial nerve is at greatest risk during the distal split of the triceps muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Branch to the anconeus
Explanation
The branch to the anconeus travels through the medial head of the triceps to reach the anconeus muscle. During a midline triceps-splitting approach, dissecting too far medially or splitting aggressively in the distal third can injure this branch and denervate the medial head.
Question 82
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient is scheduled for ORIF of a proximal humerus fracture via a standard deltopectoral approach. During the deep dissection, the surgeon visualizes the conjoined tendon. Retraction of the conjoined tendon medially places which neurological structure at highest risk?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation
Vigorous medial retraction of the conjoined tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis) during the deltopectoral approach places the musculocutaneous nerve at high risk of stretch injury. The nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis 3 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid process.
Question 83
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 72-year-old male undergoes a minimally invasive plate osteosynthesis (MIPO) via an anterior approach for a proximal humerus fracture extending into the diaphysis. The surgeon passes a long locking plate submuscularly from proximal to distal. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during distal screw placement in this technique?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
During the anterior MIPO technique for the humerus, the radial nerve is at significant risk during distal screw placement. As the nerve courses anteriorly through the lateral intermuscular septum into the distal anterolateral arm, it can be injured by drill bits, screws, or the plate itself if passed blindly.
Question 84
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The Thompson approach to the proximal radius is often utilized for treating complex radius fractures. What is the precise internervous interval utilized in this surgical approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor digitorum communis
Explanation
The Thompson approach uses the interval between the extensor carpi radialis brevis (radial nerve) and the extensor digitorum communis (posterior interosseous nerve). The posterior interosseous nerve is at risk within the supinator muscle during deep dissection.
Question 85
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During an anterolateral approach to the humeral shaft, the surgeon splits the brachialis muscle longitudinally to expose the bone. What is the neurovascular rationale for splitting the brachialis muscle rather than retracting it entirely?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The medial half is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and the lateral half by the radial nerve.
Explanation
The brachialis has dual innervation: the medial portion is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve, while the lateral portion is innervated by the radial nerve. Splitting the muscle longitudinally safely exploits this internervous plane.
Question 86
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 40-year-old female sustains a Bryan-Morrey Type I capitellar shear fracture. The surgeon elects to use the Kocher approach for open reduction and internal fixation. What is the superficial internervous interval utilized in this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anconeus and extensor carpi ulnaris
Explanation
The Kocher approach utilizes the interval between the anconeus (innervated by the radial nerve) and the extensor carpi ulnaris (innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve).
Question 87
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon is performing a volar Henry approach for fixation of a middle-third radius fracture. During the proximal exposure, careful dissection is required to protect the superficial radial nerve and radial artery. What is the internervous interval in the proximal portion of the volar Henry approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pronator teres and brachioradialis
Explanation
The proximal internervous interval for the volar Henry approach is between the pronator teres (median nerve) and the brachioradialis (radial nerve). Distally, the interval shifts to between the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis.
Question 88
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 30-year-old male sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture with an intact radial nerve on initial exam. Following closed reduction and placement of a coaptation splint in the emergency department, a complete radial nerve palsy is noted. According to AAOS guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Removal or bivalving of the splint and reassessment of the nerve
Explanation
A secondary radial nerve palsy that occurs immediately after manipulation or splinting mandates removal of the splint, reassessment of alignment, and re-evaluation. If the palsy persists, the need for immediate exploration remains controversial but is heavily considered if the nerve is thought to be entrapped.
Question 89
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient with a closed humeral shaft fracture presents with a primary radial nerve palsy. The fracture is managed non-operatively. At what time point is an electromyogram (EMG) and nerve conduction study indicated if there is no clinical sign of nerve recovery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 6 weeks post-injury
Explanation
If no clinical recovery of a primary radial nerve palsy is seen, a baseline EMG is typically obtained at 6 weeks post-injury to look for nascent fibrillation potentials and evaluate for nerve continuity. Operative exploration is typically reserved for 3-4 months if no recovery occurs.
Question 90
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When performing a posterior approach to the humeral shaft, the surgeon must be acutely aware of the radial nerve's location. On average, at what distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does the radial nerve cross the posterior aspect of the humerus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 14 cm
Explanation
The radial nerve runs posterior to the humerus roughly 14 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle and approximately 20 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle.
Question 91
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon utilizes the lateral (Kocher) approach to the elbow to access the radial head in a Bado Type II Monteggia variant. Which internervous plane is utilized in this approach?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extensor carpi ulnaris and anconeus
Explanation
The Kocher approach utilizes the true internervous plane between the anconeus (innervated by the radial nerve) and the extensor carpi ulnaris (innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve).
Question 92
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When utilizing the posterior approach to the humerus for internal fixation of a diaphyseal fracture, at what approximate distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does the radial nerve pierce the lateral intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10 to 12 cm
Explanation
The radial nerve passes from the posterior compartment to the anterior compartment by piercing the lateral intermuscular septum approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. This is a critical danger zone during the posterior approach to the distal humerus.
Question 93
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 55-year-old carpenter with severe erosive osteoarthritis of the index finger PIP joint, refractory to conservative treatment, elects for surgical arthrodesis to achieve a stable, pain-free joint for his demanding profession. During the procedure, after preparing the articular surfaces, the surgeon aims to achieve the optimal fusion angle for the index finger PIP joint. Which of the following angles is generally considered most appropriate for fusion of the index finger PIP joint to facilitate optimal object manipulation, pinch, and grip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 30-45 degrees of flexion
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe 'Detailed Surgical Approach / Technique' section, under 'Arthrodesis of the PIP Joint,' states: 'The index PIP joint is typically fused in 30-45 degrees of flexion. This angle allows for optimal object manipulation, pinch, and grip without interfering with adjacent digits. For the index finger, a slightly more extended position (30-35 degrees) may be preferred to facilitate lateral pinch.' The image (Figure 2) shows a dorsal mini-fragment plate used for rigid fixation, which is a common method for achieving this desired fusion angle.Incorrect Options:A & B:Fusion at 0-20 degrees of flexion would make it difficult to form a functional grip or pinch, as the finger would be too straight to conform to objects.D & E:Fusion at 50-80 degrees of flexion would result in a finger that is too flexed, potentially interfering with adjacent digits, making it difficult to extend the finger for object release, and hindering effective pinch and grip.
Question 94
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon is performing a trapeziectomy with LRTI for advanced thumb CMC arthritis. After excising the trapezium, the next step involves preparing the FCR tendon for reconstruction. Referring to the provided image and the case description, which statement accurately describes the FCR tendon harvest for a standard LRTI?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A proximally based slip, approximately one-third to one-half the width of the FCR tendon and 8-10 cm long, is harvested from its radial aspect.
Explanation
Correct Answer: BUnder "Detailed Surgical Approach / Technique Trapeziectomy with LRTI - FCR Tendon Harvest," the case states: "A slip of the FCR tendon, approximately one-third to one-half of its width, and about 8-10 cm long, is harvested from its radial aspect. The slip is proximally based and distally released from its insertion..." The image visually supports the concept of a tendon slip being used for reconstruction.Option A is incorrect; while the entire FCR can be used, the standard LRTI often uses a slip, and it's used for both suspension and interposition, not just interposition. Option C is incorrect; the slip is proximally based, not distally, and while the scaphoid can be an anchoring point in some variations, it's not the primary method described for the slip passage itself. Option D is incorrect; the FCR is typically used for both components. Option E is incorrect; the slip is harvested from the radial aspect, and preserving a portion of the FCR (as opposed to the entire tendon) is what helps maintain some wrist flexion function, not harvesting from a specific aspect to preserve it.
Question 95
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When utilizing an anterolateral surgical approach for the open reduction and internal fixation of a severe pilon fracture, which of the following neurologic structures is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation
The anterolateral approach to the distal tibia/pilon places the superficial peroneal nerve at high risk as it crosses the surgical field anteriorly. Careful dissection and retraction are required to prevent neuroma formation and sensory deficits.
Question 96
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 22-year-old athlete sustains a rotational ankle injury. Radiographs show a fracture of the proximal third of the fibula and widening of the medial clear space. What structure is highly at risk during surgical approach or from the injury itself in this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Common peroneal nerve
Explanation
A Maisonneuve fracture involves a proximal fibula fracture with an associated syndesmotic disruption and medial injury. The common peroneal nerve wraps around the fibular neck and is at risk from both the injury and the proximal surgical approach.
Question 97
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During open reduction and internal fixation of a medial malleolus fracture, a longitudinal incision is made directly over the medial malleolus. Which neurological structure is most at risk of injury during the superficial dissection in this area?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Saphenous nerve
Explanation
The saphenous nerve and the greater saphenous vein run in close proximity anterior to the medial malleolus. They are at significant risk of iatrogenic injury during surgical approaches to the medial malleolus.
Question 98
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
When planning surgery for a severe, fixed positive sagittal imbalance in an adult deformity patient, which of the following osteotomies reliably provides the greatest amount of sagittal plane correction per level without complete segmental resection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO)
Explanation
A Pedicle Subtraction Osteotomy (PSO) involves resection of the posterior elements and a wedge of the vertebral body, providing approximately 30 to 40 degrees of sagittal lordosis at a single level. SPOs and Ponte osteotomies typically provide only 10 degrees per level.
Question 99
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
An adult patient with severe fixed positive sagittal imbalance and previous long-segment lumbar fusion requires surgical correction. The surgeon plans a three-column osteotomy to achieve the necessary lordosis. Approximately how much lordotic correction can typically be obtained from a single-level pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 30 to 40 degrees
Explanation
A single-level pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO) typically provides approximately 30 to 40 degrees of sagittal correction. This is in contrast to a Smith-Petersen osteotomy (SPO), which provides about 10 degrees of correction per level.
Question 100
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
Which surgical approach provides the best exposure for ORIF of a radial head fracture while minimizing the risk to the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral approach (Kocher approach)
Explanation
Correct Answer: AThe posterolateral approach, also known as the Kocher approach, is widely preferred for radial head fractures. It uses the interval between the anconeus and extensor carpi ulnaris (ECU) muscles. This approach protects the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN), which typically lies within the supinator muscle, distal and anterior to the radial head. The anterior (Henry) approach risks the PIN more directly, and medial or direct posterior approaches are generally not suitable for radial head fixation. The lateral approach with anconeus muscle split is similar to Kocher but the key is the safe interval.
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