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Question 961

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

Anatomical variation of the sciatic nerve as it exits the greater sciatic foramen is well documented. In approximately 10-15% of the population, a variant exists that can predispose to iatrogenic injury or piriformis syndrome. What is the most common anatomical variant of the sciatic nerve?

. The entire sciatic nerve exits superior to the piriformis muscle.
. The tibial division pierces the piriformis, while the common peroneal division exits inferiorly.
. The common peroneal division pierces the piriformis muscle, while the tibial division exits inferiorly.
. The entire sciatic nerve pierces the substance of the piriformis muscle.
. The sciatic nerve exits anterior to the obturator internus.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The entire sciatic nerve exits superior to the piriformis muscle.


Explanation

The most common anatomical variation (present in roughly 10-15% of people) is the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve piercing through the piriformis muscle, while the tibial division passes underneath it.

Question 962

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a direct anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach to the hip for total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon utilizes both superficial and deep internervous planes. Which of the following accurately describes the deep internervous plane for this approach?

. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae
. Rectus femoris and gluteus medius
. Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
. Tensor fasciae latae and rectus femoris
. Iliopsoas and pectineus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sartorius and tensor fasciae latae


Explanation

The direct anterior approach exploits the superficial internervous plane between the sartorius (femoral nerve) and the tensor fasciae latae (superior gluteal nerve). The deep plane lies between the rectus femoris (femoral nerve) and the gluteus medius (superior gluteal nerve).

Question 963

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

An orthopedic surgeon is performing an anterior intrapelvic (modified Stoppa) approach for an acetabular fracture. The surgeon must identify and ligate the 'corona mortis' to prevent massive hemorrhage. This vascular structure is most commonly an anastomosis between which of the following systems?

. External iliac and obturator systems
. Internal pudendal and inferior gluteal systems
. Superior gluteal and inferior epigastric systems
. Internal iliac and medial femoral circumflex systems
. Lateral sacral and superior vesical systems

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac and obturator systems


Explanation

The corona mortis is a critical vascular anastomosis connecting the external iliac (or deep inferior epigastric) system and the internal iliac (obturator) system. It courses over the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and is highly vulnerable during intrapelvic approaches.

Question 964

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

In the setting of a complex posterior pilon fracture, a posterolateral surgical approach is planned. Which of the following anatomic intervals is typically utilized to access the posterolateral fragment (Volkmann's fragment)?

. Between the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) and the peroneal tendons
. Between the Achilles tendon and the FHL
. Between the tibialis posterior and the flexor digitorum longus (FDL)
. Between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus
. Between the medial malleolus and tibialis posterior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) and the peroneal tendons


Explanation

The posterolateral approach to the distal tibia utilizes the interval between the flexor hallucis longus (FHL) medially and the peroneal tendons laterally to safely access the posterolateral Volkmann fragment.

Question 965

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 24-year-old unrestrained driver is involved in a motor vehicle collision. He presents with his right lower extremity positioned in flexion, adduction, and internal rotation.

Which of the following structures is at greatest risk of injury?

. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve


Explanation

The clinical posture described is classic for a posterior hip dislocation. This injury places the sciatic nerve, specifically the common peroneal division, at greatest risk due to stretching or direct compression by the displaced femoral head.

Question 966

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 30-year-old male sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture and presents with an immediate, complete radial nerve palsy. The fracture is acceptably reduced and placed in a coaptation splint. If there is no clinical sign of nerve recovery, at what post-injury timeframe is an EMG/NCS most indicated to evaluate for subclinical reinnervation?

. Immediately
. 3 to 4 weeks
. 6 to 12 weeks
. 6 months
. 1 year

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediately


Explanation

Primary radial nerve palsies associated with closed humerus fractures are usually managed observationally, as the majority are neurapraxias. If no clinical signs of recovery are present by 6 to 12 weeks, an EMG/NCS should be obtained to assess for denervation and subclinical reinnervation.

Question 967

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 35-year-old restrained driver in a motor vehicle collision sustains a traumatic posterior hip dislocation. Following successful closed reduction, the patient exhibits weak ankle dorsiflexion and decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot. Which nerve division is most commonly injured in this injury pattern?

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve


Explanation

The peroneal (fibular) division of the sciatic nerve is most commonly injured during posterior hip dislocations. Its lateral position and relatively fixed tethering at the sciatic notch make it more vulnerable to stretch than the tibial division.

Question 968

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During open reduction and internal fixation of a volar Barton's fracture, the surgeon decides to use a classic volar Henry approach. Which surgical interval is primarily utilized for this approach?

. Between flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis
. Between brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus
. Between flexor carpi radialis and the radial artery
. Between palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis
. Between extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum superficialis


Explanation

The classic volar Henry approach to the distal radius uses the internervous plane between the flexor carpi radialis (median nerve) and the brachioradialis (radial nerve). The radial artery is carefully identified and retracted radially with the brachioradialis.

Question 969

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 55-year-old man with iatrogenic flatback syndrome requires surgical correction. The surgeon plans a single-level procedure to achieve approximately 30 to 35 degrees of sagittal correction. Which of the following osteotomies is most appropriate?

. Multiple Smith-Petersen osteotomies (SPOs)
. Pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO)
. Vertebral column resection (VCR)
. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion (ALIF)
. Gill laminectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Multiple Smith-Petersen osteotomies (SPOs)


Explanation

A pedicle subtraction osteotomy (PSO) is a three-column wedge osteotomy that hinges on the anterior cortex, typically providing about 30 degrees of lordosis at a single level. SPOs provide ~10 degrees per level, while VCRs are reserved for severe, rigid, multi-planar deformities.

Question 970

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

Examination of a 30-year-old professional singer who has persistent neck and shoulder pain reveals a positive Hoffman's sign and clonus because of anterior C2-3 cord compression. The MRI scan shown in Figure 11a and the cervical CT scan shown in Figure 11b reveal focal anterior cord compression at the C2-3 level. Which of the following surgical approaches would least affect her professional career?

. Transoral, transmucosal direct anterior approach to C2-3
. Left-sided anterior approach to C2-3 (Smith-Robinson)
. Right-sided posterior retropharyngeal approach to C2-3 (Whitesides)
. Right-sided anterior approach to C2-3 (Smith-Robinson)
. Right-sided anterior retropharyngeal approach with extended vertical incision (superior extension Smith-Robinson)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transoral, transmucosal direct anterior approach to C2-3


Explanation

Protection of the superior laryngeal nerve is critical in a professional singer. The nerve is easily injured with retraction when using vertical extension of common anterior surgical approaches to gain exposure to the C2-3 level. McAfee and associates reported on 17 patients with C1-2 and C2-3 pathology. They used a modified submandibular approach as an anterior retropharyngeal exposure with modification of the superior extension of the Smith-Robinson technique that allows visualization of the superior laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures. No incidences of superior laryngeal nerve injury were recorded. The transoral approach should be avoided because of the high rate of infection and limited exposure. McAfee PC, Bohlman HH, Reilly LH Jr, Robinson RA, Southwick WO, Nachlas NE: The anterior retropharyngeal approach to the upper part of the cervical spine. J Bone Joint Surgery Am 1987;69:1371-1383.

Question 971

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 25-year-old male sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture after a fall. Upon presentation, he has a wrist drop and inability to extend his fingers, but normal sensation in the axillary nerve distribution. Radiographs show acceptable alignment. What is the most appropriate initial management of the nerve injury?

. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve
. Coaptation splinting and clinical observation
. Immediate EMG and nerve conduction studies
. External fixation of the humerus
. Open reduction and internal fixation with nerve grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical exploration of the radial nerve


Explanation

Immediate radial nerve palsy in a closed humeral shaft fracture is typically a neuropraxia with a spontaneous recovery rate of over 70-90%. Initial management consists of functional bracing/splinting and observation for 3-4 months before considering exploration.

Question 972

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an open Latarjet procedure, aggressive medial retraction of the conjoint tendon places a specific nerve at risk of traction injury. Which nerve is most vulnerable, and what is its expected distance from the tip of the coracoid?

. Axillary nerve; 1 to 2 cm
. Musculocutaneous nerve; 3 to 8 cm
. Suprascapular nerve; 1 to 2 cm
. Radial nerve; 5 to 7 cm
. Median nerve; 10 to 12 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve; 1 to 2 cm


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve penetrates the deep surface of the coracobrachialis approximately 3 to 8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid. Overzealous medial or distal retraction of the conjoint tendon during a Latarjet procedure can cause a traction neurapraxia to this nerve.

Question 973

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an open Latarjet procedure, the surgeon inadvertently places a self-retaining medial retractor deep to the conjoined tendon and applies excessive traction. Which of the following nerves is at greatest risk of injury from this maneuver?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle 5 to 8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid. Retractors placed medially and distally to the conjoined tendon place this nerve at significant risk.

Question 974

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 42-year-old man is undergoing an open subpectoral biceps tenodesis. The surgeon makes an incision in the axillary fold and exposes the intertubercular groove. Which nerve is most at risk of injury during medial retraction of the conjoint tendon in this approach?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Median nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Radial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

During a subpectoral biceps tenodesis, vigorous medial retraction of the short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis (conjoint tendon) puts the musculocutaneous nerve at high risk, as it penetrates the coracobrachialis nearby.

Question 975

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a deltopectoral approach for a proximal humerus fracture, the axillary nerve must be protected. Which of the following describes its anatomical course relative to the shoulder joint?

. Anterior to the subscapularis muscle belly
. Inferior to the joint capsule, passing posteriorly through the quadrilateral space
. Through the triangular space accompanied by the circumflex scapular artery
. Superior to the coracoid process
. Lateral to the long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the subscapularis muscle belly


Explanation

The axillary nerve runs inferior to the joint capsule and exits the axilla posteriorly through the quadrilateral space. It is particularly at risk during inferior capsular releases or inferior retractor placement.

Question 976

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

Following an acute anterior shoulder dislocation, a 24-year-old male is unable to actively elevate his arm and reports numbness over the lateral aspect of his shoulder. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Median nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most frequently injured nerve during anterior shoulder dislocations. It innervates the deltoid and teres minor and provides sensation to the lateral shoulder (superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm).

Question 977

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 28-year-old man sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation with a concomitant greater tuberosity fracture. Following closed reduction, the patient is unable to actively abduct the shoulder and has diminished sensation over the lateral aspect of the shoulder. Injury to which of the following nerves is most likely?

. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Thoracodorsal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most commonly injured nerve in anterior shoulder dislocations, particularly those associated with greater tuberosity fractures. It innervates the deltoid and teres minor and provides sensation to the lateral shoulder via the superior lateral brachial cutaneous nerve.

Question 978

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During an open repair of a massive, retracted subscapularis tendon tear, extensive medial mobilization of the muscle belly is required. Which neural structure is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during this mobilization?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Upper and lower subscapular nerves
. Suprascapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The upper and lower subscapular nerves innervate the subscapularis muscle and enter the anterior muscle belly medially. Extensive medial mobilization, especially past the conjoined tendon, places these nerves at significant risk of traction or transection injury.

Question 979

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

A 50-year-old male arrives in the emergency department with an acute anterior shoulder dislocation after a fall. Following successful closed reduction, he reports a patch of numbness over the lateral aspect of his shoulder and exhibits weakness when attempting to actively abduct the arm. Which nerve is most commonly injured in this injury pattern?

. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Long thoracic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial nerve


Explanation

The axillary nerve is the most frequently injured nerve in anterior shoulder dislocations. It presents clinically with weakness of the deltoid (abduction) and numbness over the lateral shoulder (the "regimental badge" area).

Question 980

Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches

During a Latarjet procedure, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. Which of the following nerves is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the coracoid mobilization and transfer?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the coracobrachialis muscle typically 3 to 8 cm distal to the coracoid tip. It is at significant risk of traction or transection injury during mobilization and transfer of the conjoined tendon in a Latarjet procedure.